Exam India : Free Resource For Exam

2008-10-08T01:15:00.000-07:00

Andhra Bank Probationary Officer's Exam.,2008 Solved Paper

2008-09-30T01:48:00.001-07:00

Solved Paper
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008

(Held on 14-09-2008)

General Awareness

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M.S.Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans (E) Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans (D)

Objective General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

2008-09-29T04:49:00.000-07:00

Objective General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act (D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above
4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

89. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

Answers :

1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A)
6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D)
16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C)
26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D)
36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B)
46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C)
56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B)
66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B)
76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C)
86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A)
96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)

FORTH COMMING EXAMINATIONS 2008 -09

2008-09-29T04:48:00.000-07:00

FORTH COMMING EXAMINATIONS 2008 -09

Indian Air Force Airmen Group X (Technical) Exam. (Sept.)
Artificer Apprentices Recruitment Test in Indian Navy (Sept.-Oct.)
Haryana State Teacher Eligibility Examination.(Head) (Oct. 4)
U.P.S.C. CPF Assistant Commandants Exam., 2008 (Oct. 5)
Bank Of Baroda Probationary Exam. (Oct. 5)
Punjab National Bank Officer's Examination . (Oct. 5)
Haryana State Teacher Eligibility Examination. (Oct. 11)
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (APO) Pre. Exam., 2007 (Oct. 12)
Haryana State Teacher Eligibility Examination. (Masters and Mistress) (Oct. 11)
State Bank of India (Pre) Examination , 2008 (Oct. 12)
West Bengal Judicial Service Final Exam., 2008 (Oct.)
Uttar pradesh Combined Competitive Exam B.Ed . -2008 (Oct. 19)
Rajasthan Patwar Competitive Exam (Oct.)
Delhi Judicial Service Exam (Pre)-2008 (Nov. 2)
S.S.C. CPO Sub-Inspectors Examination, 2008 (Nov. 9)
National Talent Search Examination, 2009 (Class VIII) (Nov. 16)
State Bank of India (Main) Examination , 2008 (Nov. 30)
S.S.C. Section Officer (Audit) Examination -2008 (Nov. 30)
Bank of Baroda Clerical Cadre Exam 2008 [Last Date Oct. 6 , 2008] (Nov. 30)
Indian Air Force Airmen Group ‘Y’ Trades Exam. (Nov.)
SSC Tax Assistant Examination ,2008 (Dec. 14)
Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Officers Cadre and Non-Teaching Posts Examination (Dec. 14)
RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (Dec. 21)
Rastriya Millitary School Common Enterance Test (Class VI) (Dec. 21)
Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (PT) Examination 2008 (Feb. 1, 2009 )
Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class IX) (Feb. 8, 2009) (Closing Date : 30 Dec., 2008)
NCERT National Talent Search Exam -2009 Class VIII (Second Term) ( May 2009)
Madhya Pradesh State Service Examination , 2008 (Jan 11, 2009)
RPSC Teacher Grade -II Competitive Examination ,2008 (Feb 2009) (Closing Date 1 Oct,2008)

Free General Awareness Test [For : Bank, UPSC, RAS/RTS , UPPCS, B.ED., MBA, BBA, RRB, SSC],

2008-09-28T23:40:00.000-07:00

Free General Awareness Test

[For : Bank, UPSC, RAS/RTS , UPPCS, B.ED., MBA, BBA, RRB, SSC]

1. Which one of the following persons occupies the top rank in Forbes’ list of World’s richest people ?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Warren Buffett
(C) Carlos Slim Heln
(D) Laxmi Mittal
Ans: (B)

2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is—
(A) 26%
(B) 49%
(C) 51%
(D) 75%
Ans: (B)

3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the country ?
(A) 22.20%
(B) 21.30%
(C) 20.60%
(D) 19.90%
Ans: (C)

4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar
(C) T. S. Vijayan
(D) Laxmi Narayan
Ans: (C)

5. SEBI is a—
(A) Statutory body
(B) Advisory body
(C) Constitutional body
(D) Non-statutory body
Ans: (A)

6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)

7. When was the SAARC established ?
(A) On December 8, 1984
(B) On January 1, 1984
(C) On December 8, 1985
(D) On January 1, 1985
Ans: (C)

8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 20
Ans: (B)

9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ?
(A) Chelliah Committee
(B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)

10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Malta
(C) The Czeck Republic
(D) Poland
Ans: (A)

11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(A) Communication
(B) Social Integration
(C) Linking of Rivers
(D) Development of Highways
Ans: (D)

12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with—
(A) A drilling vessel
(B) A project of port development
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)

13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee” in—
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Ans: (B)

14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) is—
(A) K. C. Raina
(B) V. P. Shetty
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Som Mittal
Ans: (C)

15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for Indian economy has been estimated to be—
(A) 9.0%
(B) 9.2%
(C) 9.4%
(D) 9.6%
Ans: (D)

16. CENVAT is related to—
(A) Sales Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) Service Tax
Ans: (B)

17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to—
(A) All labours in rural areas
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labours in urban areas
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Ans: (B)

18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about—
(A) 35 : 65
(B) 32 : 68
(C) 28 : 72
(D) 25 : 75
Ans: (C)

19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for 2006-07 is estimated at—
(A) 80.11 MT
(B) 90.0 MT
(C) 93.4 MT
(D) 101.60 MT
Ans: (C)

20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is—
(A) U.P.
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans: (B)

21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the level—
(A) 9.2%
(B) 8.5%
(C) 11.0%
(D) 12.0%
Ans: (D)

22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to—
(A) Reliance Group
(B) Tata Group
(C) Birla Group
(D) NTPC
Ans: (B)

23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing universal elementary education ?
(A) Kerala and Orissa respectively
(B) Kerala and Bihar repectively
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively
(D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively
Ans: (B)

24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—
(A) 41110 MW
(B) 66463 MW
(C) 68963 MW
(D) 86283 MW
Ans: (B)

25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ?
(A) Service Sector
(B) Manufacturing Sector
(C) Transport and communication
(D) Agriculture Sector
Ans: (C)

26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is—
(A) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Secretary of Planning Commission
(D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission
Ans: (C)

27. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July–August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)

28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector—
(A) Coal
(B) Iron
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum
Ans: (A)

29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Ans: (D)

30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 7–8 February, 2008 at—
(A) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Mohali (Punjab)
(D) Panchkula (Haryana)
Ans: (D)

31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?
(A) 28.5%
(B) 29.5%
(C) 30.5%
(D) 31.5%
Ans: (C)

32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ?
(A) U.P.
(B) M.P.
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans: (D)

33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)—
(A) Upto January 1, 2008
(B) Upto March 31, 2008
(C) w.e.f April 1, 2008
(D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009
Ans: (B)

34. What is ‘NIKKEI’ ?
(A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market
(B) Name of Japanese Central Bank
(C) Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission
(D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan
Ans: (A)

35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ?
(A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution
(B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
(C) Members do not require any minimum education
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1, 2007 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Goa
Ans: (A)

37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2007–08 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs. 50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at—
(A) Rs. 50,603 crore
(B) Rs. 52,603 crore
(C) Rs. 64,460 crore
(D) Rs. 64,640 crore
Ans: (A)

38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(A) Public Account Committee
(B) Shivaraman Committee
(C) Narsimham Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)

39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from—
(A) 1st April, 2001
(B) 25th Sept., 2001
(C) 30th Sept., 2001
(D) No scheme of such title has yet launched
Ans: (B)

40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) Reliance Infocom
(D) Bharti Tele
Ans: (B)

41. VAT is imposed—
(A) Directly on consumer
(B) On final stage of production
(C) On first stage of production
(D) On all stages between production and final sale
Ans: (D)

42. The newly elevated person as Joint Chairman–cum–Managing Director of National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is—
(A) S. Sridhar
(B) Viswapati Trivedi
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Venugopal Dhoot
Ans: (B)

43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with—
(A) Promoting cottage industry in villages
(B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth
(C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line
(D) All of these
Ans: (C)

44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with—
(A) Tata Steels
(B) SAIL
(C) HINDALCO
(D) Jindal Steels
Ans: (C)

45. OTCEI is—
(A) Atomic Submarine of China
(B) Economic policy of USA
(C) An Indian Share Market
(D) A defence research organisation
Ans: (C)

46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is—
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) C. B. Bhave
(C) Venugopal Dhoot
(D) Sunil K. Munjal
Ans: (B)

47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it has been raised to—
(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore
(B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore
(C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore
(D) Rs. 28,456 crore
Ans: (B)

48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
Ans: (D)

49. In Budget proposals for 2008–09, which of the following gives 24% contribution in revenue collection of union government ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Excise
(C) Corporation Tax
(D) Non-tax Revenue
Ans: (C)

50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI—UNME) is—
(A) 1980-81
(B) 1981-81
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1984-85
Ans: (D)

51. CAPART is related with—
(A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes
(B) Computer hardware
(C) Consultant service of export promotion
(D) Controlling pollution in big industries
Ans: (A)

52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs. 200 crore
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)

53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
(A) National Saving Certificate
(B) Indira Vikas Patra
(C) National Saving Scheme
(D) Public Providend Fund
Ans: (B)

54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on—
(A) 31 March, 1997
(B) 31 March, 1996
(C) 1 April, 1992
(D) 1 April, 1995
Ans: (A)

55. SEBI was established in—
(A) 1993
(B) 1992
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Ans: (C)

56. The working of SEBI includes—
(A) To regulate the dealings of share market
(B) To check the foul dealings in share market
(C) To control the inside trading of shares
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

57. The “Ad hoc Treasury Bill System” of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by ‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on—
(A) March 31, 1997
(B) April 1, 1996
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4•0% in 2004–05 which sliped down in 2008–09 (Budget Estimates) to—
(A) 3.2%
(B) 2.8%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 2.1%
Ans: (C)

59. According to the Economic Survey 2007–08 during the period April 3, 2007 and February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by—
(A) 5.6%
(B) 6.8%
(C) 8.9%
(D) 9.3%
Ans: (C)

60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
(A) It is not an agency of UNO
(B) It can grant loan to any country of the world
(C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country
(D) It grants loan only to member nations
Ans: (D)

61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at—
(A) 3.8%
(B) 5.9%
(C) 0.0%
(D) 6.3%
Ans: (A)

62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?
(1) FCI Food Corporation of India
(2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
(3) Cotton Corporation of India
(4) Jute Corporation of India
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3
(C) Only 3, 4
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ?
(A) April 5, every year
(B) July 9, every year
(C) October 9, every year
(D) December 9, every year
Ans: (D)

64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was—
(A) Rs. 4500 crore
(B) Rs. 5500 crore
(C) Rs. 10000 crore
(D) Rs. 12000 crore
Ans: (D)

65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as—
(A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively
(B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively
(C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively
(D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively
Ans: (D)

66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ?
(A) Price for APL is double of BPL price
(B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price
(C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt.
(D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt.
Ans: (A)

67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (2007–12) ?
(A) 42%
(B) 33%
(C) 29%
(D) 26%
Ans: (D)

68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in—
(A) Rural Post Offices
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Rural Development Bank
(D) Any of the above
Ans: (A)

69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08 at—
(A) Again 6%
(B) 4.3%
(C) 3.3%
(D) 2.6%
Ans: (D)

70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at—
(A) 110.52 Million Tonnes
(B) 112.24 Million Tonnes
(C) 114.42 Million Tonnes
(D) 115.9 Million Tonnes
Ans: (D)

71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by—
(A) 2008 end
(B) 2009 end
(C) 2010 end
(D) 2011 end
Ans: (A)

72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ?
(A) Bhootlingam Committee
(B) Wanchoo Committee
(C) Raj Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (d)

73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is—
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
Ans: (D)

74. The cause of deflation is—
(A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply
(B) Lack of imports as compared to exports
(C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ?
(A) Employment
(B) Size of exports
(C) Rural consumption
(D) National Income
Ans: (D)

76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
Ans: (C)

77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-09 budget proposals?
(A) 12 Paise
(B) 10 Paise
(C) 8 Paise
(D) 7 Paise
Ans: (C)

8. ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1995
(D) 1992
Ans: (A)

79. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(C) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(D) Co-existence of rich and poor
Ans: (C)

80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to—
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Ans: (D)

81. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by—
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) SBI
(D) UTI Bank
Ans: (C)

82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at—
(A) 16.4%
(B) 17.4%
(C) 17.8%
(D) 15.8%
Ans: (A)

83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans: (D)

84. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Cash with Bank
(D) Cash with Public
Ans: (B)

85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ?
(A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch)
(B) Airtel
(C) BSNL
(D) Reliance
Ans: (B)

86. The main objective of TRYSEM was—
(A) To train rural youth for self employment
(B) To train urban youth for self employment
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-operation) was officially declared on—
(A) March 5, 1996
(B) March 5, 1997
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) August 15, 1947
Ans: (B)

88. Inside Trading is related to—
(A) Share Market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) Public Expenditure
Ans: (A)

89. The largest source of National Income in India is—
(A) Service Sector
(B) Agriculture
(C) Industrial Sector
(D) Trade Sector
Ans: (A)

90. ‘Public Sector’ means—
(A) Government ownership on commerce and trade
(B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(C) Private ownership on trade
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

91. NABARD is—
(A) A bank
(B) A board
(C) A block
(D) A department
Ans: (A)

92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in—
(A) Wheat and Potato
(B) Jwar and Oil Seeds
(C) Wheat and Rice
(D) Tea and Coffee
Ans: (C)

93. The period of 10th plan in India was—
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2001-2006
(C) 2002-2007
(D) 2003-2008
Ans: (C)

94. Economic Planning is in—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Not any specified list
Ans: (C)

95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is—
(A) 7.0%
(B) 6.75%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 6.0%
Ans: (D)

96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ?
(A) 26.4%
(B) 31.4%
(C) 34.8%
(D) 35.2%
Ans: (B)

97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ?
(A) 7.0%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.0%
(D) 8.5%
Ans: (B)

98. MRTP is related to—
(A) Monopoly and trade restrictions
(B) Inflation control
(C) Transport control
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulations
Ans: (A)

99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of—
(A) Fiscal Policy
(B) Industrial Policy
(C) Monetary Policy
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans: (B)

Free General Awareness Test

[For : Bank, UPSC, RAS/RTS , UPPCS, B.ED., MBA, BBA, RRB, SSC]

S. S. C. Central Police Organisations Sub-Inspectors Exam. Solved Paper

2008-09-28T23:33:00.000-07:00

S. S. C. Central Police Organisations Sub-Inspectors Exam

General Awareness

(Paper–I)

51. Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from—
(A) RBI
(B) IDBI
(C) SBI
(D) ICICI
Ans : (A)

52. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1996
(C) 1998
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

53. Compared to the rich the poor save—
(A) a larger part of their income
(B) an equal part of their income
(C) a smaller part of their income
(D) all of their incomes
Ans : (C)

54. Cheap money means—
(A) low rates of interest
(B) low level of saving
(C) low level of income
(D) low level of standard of living
Ans : (A)

55. Under the rules of the IMF, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of U.S. dollars and—
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Pound sterling
(D) Diamond
Ans : (C)

56. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Pulses
(D) Sugarcane
Ans : (B)

57. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : (B)

58. In which state was the first Non-Congress Government set up in independent India ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
Ans : (D)

59. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is—
(A) Imposition of import duties
(B) Liberalisation of the economy
(C) Recession in other countries
(D) Diversification of exports
Ans : (D)

60. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is—
(A) Deflation
(B) Inflation
(C) Recession
(D) Stagflation
Ans : (B)

61. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 56th
Ans : (A)

62. November 26, 1949 is a significant day in our Constitutional history because—
(A) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day
(B) the Constitution was adopted on this day
(C) India became a Republic on this day
(D) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day
Ans : (B)

63. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Socialist
(C) Secular
(D) Federal
Ans : (D)

64. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms ?
(A) S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) V.V. Giri
Ans : (B)

65. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than—
(A) 21 years of age
(B) 25 years of age
(C) 30 years of age
(D) 32 years of age
Ans : (C)

66. The Union Parliament consists of—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(C) The House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

67. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is—
(A) 530
(B) 545
(C) 540
(D) 550
Ans : (D)

68. How many readings does a non-money bill have in each House of the Parliament ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) One
Ans : (B)

69. Money bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the—
(A) Governor of the State
(B) Chief Minister of the State
(C) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(D) Finance Minister of the State
Ans : (A)

70. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was—
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V.P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar
Ans : (C)

71. The first General Secretary of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) A.O. Hume
(C) Ferozeshah Mehta
(D) Badruddin Tyabji
Ans : (B)

72. Raja Rammohan Roy organised a historic agitation against the—
(A) Caste system
(B) Evil custom of sati
(C) Degrading position of women in society
(D) Practice of superfluous religious rituals
Ans : (B)

73. “Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge…” This was stated on the night of August 14,1947 by—
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (C)

74. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on ‘Non-Cooperation’ in 1920 at its session held at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Delhi
(C) Bombay
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (C)

75. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Surendranath Banerjee
Ans : (A)

76. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab ?
(A) Educational Reforms
(B) Police Reforms
(C) Industrial Reforms
(D) Agricultural Reforms
Ans : (D)

77. Who of the following was sent as an ambassador to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then king of England ?
(A) John Hawkins
(B) William Todd
(C) Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Sir Walter Raleigh
Ans : (A)

78. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of—
(A) 1909
(B) 1919
(C) 1935
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

79. The transfer of Government from the ‘Company’ to the ‘Crown’ was pronounced by Lord Canning (November 1, 1858) at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Delhi
(C) Patna
(D) Allahabad
Ans : (D)

80. The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other in 1916 at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Amritsar
(C) Lucknow
(D) Haripura
Ans : (C)

81. Silent Valley of Kerala—
(A) is the only evergreen forest in India
(B) contains costly timber trees
(C) is a good picnic spot
(D) contains rare species of plants and animals
Ans : (D)

82. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found is—
(A) Kanha
(B) Dachigam
(C) Gir
(D) Mudumalai
Ans : (B)

83. The approximate length of the coastline of India is—
(A) 5,500 km
(B) 6,000 km
(C) 6,500 km
(D) 7,000 km
Ans : (D)

84. The area with annual rainfall less than 50 cm in a year is—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Leh in Kashmir
(C) Coromandel coast
(D) Konkan coast
Ans : (B)

85. The highest grade and best quality coal is—
(A) Lignite
(B) Peat
(C) Bituminous
(D) Anthracite
Ans : (D)

86. The ‘Dark Continent’ is—
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Asia
Ans : (A)

87. Which one of the following is the wettest place in India ?
(A) Mahabaleshwar
(B) Cherrapunji
(C) Udhagamandalam
(D) Mawsynram
Ans : (D)

88. Which dam of India is the highest ?
(A) Mettur
(B) Rihand
(C) Thein
(D) Bhakra
Ans : (D)

89. Of the gross cropped area in India, the foodgrains occupy—
(A) more than 70%
(B) 60 to 70%
(C) 50 to 60%
(D) less than 50%
Ans : (A)

90. The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Ltd. is located at—
(A) Bangalore
(B) Bhadravati
(C) Mangalore
(D) Mysore
Ans : (B)

91. Which of the following is a fish ?
(A) Silverfish
(B) Starfish
(C) Dogfish
(D) Cuttlefish
Ans : (C)

92. Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity ?
(A) Kata Thermometer
(B) Anemometer
(C) Sling Psychrometer
(D) Clinical Thermometer
Ans : (C)

93. Kaziranga National Park is famous for—
(A) Rhinoceros
(B) Tiger
(C) Lion
(D) Crocodile
Ans : (A)

94. The colour of human skin is produced by—
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Insulin
(C) Adrenaline
(D) Melanin
Ans : (D)

95. Which one of the following is not transmitted via blood transfusion ?
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Typhoid
(C) HIV
(D) Malaria
Ans : (B)

96. Nuclear explosive devices were tested in India at—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Bangalore
(C) Pokharan
(D) Kanchipuram
Ans : (C)

97. The gradation and standardisation of agricultural products are conducted through—
(A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection
(C) Indian Standards Institution
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
Ans : (B)

98. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is—
(A) 24 hours
(B) 30 days
(C) 365 days
(D) changing continuously
Ans : (A)

99. The type of mirrors used in the headlamp of cars is—
(A) parabolic concave
(B) plane
(C) spherical convex
(D) cylindrical concave
Ans : (A)

100. The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is—
(A) refraction
(B) light scattering
(C) reflection
(D) interference
Ans : (A)

101. Alternating current is converted into direct current by a—
(A) transformer
(B) dynamo
(C) oscillator
(D) rectifier
Ans : (D)

102. German silver used for making utensils is an alloy of—
(A) copper, silver, nickel
(B) copper, zinc, nickel
(C) copper, zinc, aluminium
(D) copper, nickel, aluminium
Ans : (B)

103. Flat footed camels can walk easily in sandy deserts because—
(A) pressure on per unit area of the sand is decreased by increasing the area of the surface in contact
(B) pressure on the sand is increased by increasing the area of the surface in contact
(C) pressure on the sand is decreased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact
(D) pressure on the sand is increased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact
Ans : (A)

104. The purity of gold is expressed in carats. The purest form of gold is—
(A) 24 carats
(B) 99•6 carats
(C) 91•6 carats
(D) 22 carats
Ans : (A)

105. Petroleum consists of a mixture of—
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Carbonates
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Carbides
Ans : (C)

106. The lustre of the metals is because of—
(A) high density, due to closed packing of atoms
(B) high polish
(C) reflection of light due to the presence of free electrons
(D) absorption of light due to the presence of cavities
Ans : (C)

107. One of the following is used to dissolve noble metals—
(A) Nitric acid
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
(D) Aqua regia
Ans : (D)

108. Gunpowder was invented by—
(A) Roger Bacon
(B) Colt
(C) C.V. Raman
(D) Dr. Gatting
Ans : (A)

109. Permanent Revenue Settlement of Bengal was introduced by—
(A) Clive
(B) Hastings
(C) Wellesley
(D) Cornwallis
Ans : (D)

110. In which year was the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) founded ?
(A) 1967
(B) 1969
(C) 1970
(D) 1974
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Indonesia — Jakarta
(B) Maldives — Male
(C) North Korea — Seoul
(D) Zimbabwe — Harare
Ans : (C)

112. For which invention is Otto Hahn famous ?
(A) Atom bomb
(B) Television
(C) X-rays
(D) Miner’s safety lamp
Ans : (A)

113. Which one of the following is not a plant product ?
(A) Caffeine
(B) Piperine
(C) Nicotine
(D) Saccharin
Ans : (D)

114. Which of the statements is correct about India’s national income ?
(A) Percentage share of agriculture is higher than services
(B) Percentage share of industry is higher than agriculture
(C) Percentage share of services is higher than industry
(D) Percentage share of services is higher than agriculture and industry put together
Ans : (D)

115. Who of the following has been appointed as the eleventh President of the World Bank for a five year term with effect from July 1, 2007 ?
(A) John Wolfensohn
(B) Paul Wolfowitz
(C) Robert Zoellick
(D) David Morgan
Ans : (C)

116. Who among the following was selected for Dadasahed Phalke Award for 2005 ?
(A) Aparna Sen
(B) Govind Nihalani
(C) M.S. Sathyu
(D) Shyam Benegal
Ans : (D)

117. The ‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty’ came into force in—
(A) 1967
(B) 1970
(C) 1971
(D) 1974
Ans : (B)

118. Which state of India has the largest percentage of poor ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Orissa
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (A)

119. Which of the following is the largest parliamentary constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Barmer (Rajasthan)
(B) Arunachal West (Arunachal Pradesh)
(C) Ladakh (J & K)
(D) Uttaranchal East (Uttaranchal)
Ans : (C)

120. The first Commonwealth Games were held in the year 1930 at—
(A) London (UK)
(B) Sydney (Australia)
(C) Hamilton (Canada)
(D) Auckland (New Zealand)
Ans : (C)

121. What percentage of Indian population is below the official poverty line ?
(A) Below 30%
(B) 30% to 35%
(C) Above 35% but below 40%
(D) Between 40% and 45%
Ans : (A)

122. The island of Corsica is associated with—
(A) Mussolini
(B) Hitler
(C) Napolean Bonaparte
(D) Winston Churchill
Ans : (C)

123. The headquarters of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is located in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Riyadh
(C) Kuwait City
(D) Abu Dhabi
Ans : (A)

124. When are the XIX Commonwealth Games scheduled to be held in Delhi ?
(A) December 2008
(B) November 2009
(C) October 2010
(D) February 2011
Ans : (C)

125. Jamini Roy distinguished himself in the field of—
(A) Badminton
(B) Painting
(C) Theatre
(D) Sculpture
Ans : (B)

S. S. C. Central Police Organisations Sub-Inspectors Exam

General Awareness

(Paper–I)

S.S.C. Section Officers (Audit) Exam Solved Paper

2008-09-28T23:31:00.000-07:00

S.S.C. Section Officers (Audit) Exam

General Awareness

(Held on 6-1-2008)

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

57. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

68. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

71. The largest producer of world’s mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli’s theorem

94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

95. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

Answers with Explanations
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64.8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)

Haryana State : Objective General Knowledge

2008-09-28T23:22:00.002-07:00

Haryana State : Objective General Knowledge

1. At which of the following place was the famous battle of Panipat fought?
(A) Kurukshetra
(B) Sirsa
(C) Panipat
(D) Jind
Ans : (A)

2. In 1526 the famous battle between Babar and Ibrahim Lodi was fought at—
(A) Kurukshetra
(B) Rewari
(C) Panipat
(D) Patiali
Ans : (C)

3. When was the famous battle of Panipat fought?
(A) 1539
(B) 1556
(C) 1565
(D) 1576
Ans : (B)

4. The third battle of Panipat was fought between—
(A) Ahmad Shah Abdali and Maratha rulers
(B) Nadir Shah and Mohd. Shah
(C) Prithvi Raj Chauhan and Mohd. Gauri
(D) Sher Khan and Humayun
Ans : (A)

5. At which place of Haryana did Lord Krishna preach the message of Geeta ?
(A) Ambala
(B) Sonipat
(C) Yamuna Nagar
(D) Kurukshetra
Ans : (D)

6. In 1947 when India was declared Independent, which of the following States was Haryana a part?
(A) Delhi
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Jammu Kashmir
Ans : (C)

7. When was the State of Haryana formed?
(A) 1st Nov., 1966
(B) 10th Dec., 1966
(C) 2nd Jan., 1967
(D) 4th March, 1967
Ans : (A)

8. With how many states does the boundary of Haryana touch?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Ans : (B)

9. Which one of the following union Territories touches the boundary of Haryana ?
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Pondicherry
(C) New Delhi
(D) All the three
Ans : (C)

10. What is the total area of Haryana ?
(A) 44,212 km2
(B) 46,213 km2
(C) 48,314 km2
(D) 52,276 km2
Ans : (A)

11. How many districts are there in Haryana ?
(A) 19
(B) 25
(C) 28
(D) 32
Ans : (A)

12. As per census of 2001 the total population of Haryana is—
(A) 1,91,72,483 persons
(B) 2,11,44,564 persons
(C) 2,40,82,988 persons
(D) 2,64,44,271 persons
Ans : (B)

13. What is the percentage of country's population in Haryana ?
(A) 2%
(B) 2.50%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
Ans : (A)

14. In which of the districts of Haryana is the H.M.T. factory situated?
(A) Patiala
(B) Ambala
(C) Jind
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (B)

15. Where is the Atlas Industry in Haryana situated?
(A) Sonipat
(B) Gurgaon
(C) Hisar
(D) Panchkula
Ans : (A)

16. Which one of the following is situated in Gurgaon of Haryana ?
(A) Manufacturing of Rajdoot Motor Cycle
(B) Manufacturing of Maruti Cars
(C) Manufacturing of Tata-Sumo
(D) All the above
Ans : (B)

17. In which district of Haryana is Rajdoot Motor Cycle manufactured ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Karnal
(C) Ambala
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (D)

18. Odinance regarding the prohibition of alcohol was passed on 1st July, 1996. Later on it was withdrawn on—
(A) 1st April, 1998
(B) 1st April, 1997
(C) 1st June, 1998
(D) 1st Aug., 1997
Ans : (A)

19. In which of the following years was each village of Haryana electrified?
(A) In 1968
(B) In 1970
(C) In 1972
(D) In 1976
Ans : (B)

20. According to 2001 census what is the percentage of Literacy in Haryana ?
(A) 62.40%
(B) 55.85%
(C) 65.72%
(D) 67.9%
Ans : (D)

21. Where has the National Research Institute in Haryana been established?
(A) At Sirsa
(B) At Kurushetra
(C) At Karnal
(D) At Jind
Ans : (C)

22. Which of the following Central Territory is the capital of Haryana ?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Pondicherry
(C) New Delhi
(D) Lakshadweep
Ans : (A)

23. Which one of the following folk dances belongs to Haryana ?
(A) Baoul
(B) Yaksha-Gaan
(C) Gidda
(D) Biehu
Ans : (C)

24. Which of the following Indian players belongs to Haryana ?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Kapil Dev
(C) Sachin Tandulkar
(D) Azharudeen
Ans : (B)

25. The turban, worn by males in Haryana is known as—
(A) Toda
(B) Muretha
(C) Paggar
(D) Khandwa
Ans : (D)

26. Where is Chaudhary Charan Singh University located at Haryana ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Kaithal
(C) Jhajjar
(D) Gurgaon
Ans : (A)

27. Which city of Haryana is known as 'City of Weavers' ?
(A) Mahendragarh
(B) Fatehabad
(C) Karnal
(D) Panipat
Ans : (D)

28. Of which of the following kings' was Thaneshwar city of Haryana the capital?
(A) Kanishka
(B) Harshwardhan
(C) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(D) Samrat Ashok
Ans : (B)

29. The glory and strength of which of the cities of Haryana was discussed in the book written by Chinese traveller Huen-Tsang?
(A) Thaneshwar
(B) Patiala
(C) Mahendragarh
(D) Kurukshetra
Ans : (A)

30. In which district of Haryana is the 'Badkhal Lake' situated?
(A) Hisar
(B) Jind
(C) Sirsa
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (D)

31. Where is the biggest animal husbandry farm of Asia situated at Haryana ?
(A) Ambala
(B) Bhiwani
(C) Hisar
(D) Rohtak
Ans : (C)

32. Not only to check the growth of population, but also to improve the male female ratio, which of the following projects is being launched by the state government?
(A) Devi-Rupak-Project
(B) Indra-Hareli-Saheli-Project
(C) Farlo project
(D) Bhagyodaya
Ans : (A)

33. Which project is being launched in Haryana for the welfare of poor girls?
(A) Apni-Beti-Apna-Dhan
(B) Apni-Beti-Paraya Dhan
(C) Paraya Dhan-Paraie Beti
(D) Indra-Saheli-Project
Ans : (A)

34. At which of the pilgrimage centres was the message of Geeta preached by Krishna to Arjun ?
(A) At Markandey Tirth
(B) Jyotisar Sarover
(C) Brahm Sarovar
(D) Kaleshwar Tirth
Ans : (B)

35. In which city of Haryana was the great epic Mahabharat written by Ved Vyas?
(A) Hisar
(B) Sonipat
(C) Yamuna-Nagar
(D) Kurukshetra
Ans : (D)

36. Where is the Motilal Nehru sports school situated at Haryana ?
(A) Rai (Sonipat)
(B) Pataudi (Gurgaon)
(C) Thanesar (Kurukshetra)
(D) Morni (Ambala)
Ans : (A)

37. According to 2001 census of India, which district of Haryana has the highest density?
(A) Panipat
(B) Panchkula
(C) Rohtak
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (D)

38. According to 2001 census which of the following districts of Haryana has the lowest density ?
(A) Sirsa
(B) Karnal
(C) Jhajjar
(D) Rewari
Ans : (A)

39. Santosh Yadav, the only woman in the world, who climbed twice the Mt. Everest belongs to which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jammu Kashmir
Ans : (B)

40. Which place of Haryana was the political as well as social working place of freedom fighter Lala Lajpat Rai ?
(A) Ambala
(B) Jhajjar
(C) Jind
(D) Hisar
Ans : (D)

41. Into how many divisions has Haryana been divided?
(A) Three divisions
(B) Four divisions
(C) Six divisions
(D) Eight divisions
Ans : (B)

42. Being famous in the production of Basmati rice, which district of Haryana is known as "Dhan-ka-katora".
(A) Sirsa
(B) Karnal
(C) Panchkula
(D) Jind
Ans : (B)

43. From the point of view of population, what is the rank of Haryana in the country?
(A) 14th
(B) 15th
(C) 16th
(D) 18th
Ans : (C)

44. Who was the founder of Haryana Vikas Party?
(A) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(B) Chaudhary Bansi Lal
(C) Chaudhary Bhajan Lal
(D) All the above
Ans : (B)

45. Where is the High Court of Haryana functioning?
(A) Patiala
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Sirsa
(D) Gurgaon
Ans : (B)

46. How many total No. of seats are there in Haryana's Assembly?
(A) 75
(B) 80
(C) 85
(D) 90
Ans : (D)

47. Who appoints the Advocate General of the State?
(A) President with the consent of Governor
(B) Governor with the consent of Chief Minister
(C) Governor himself
(D) None of them
Ans : (C)

48. Who appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission?
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) Governor
(C) President on the recommendation of the Governor
(D) Prime Minister on the recommendation of the Governor
Ans : (B)

49. How many seats are allotted to the members of Rajya Sabha from Haryana State?
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans : (A)

50. How many seats are allotted to the lower house of Parliament from Haryana State?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 18
Ans : (B)

51. Who is the constitutional Head of the State Government?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

52. The chairman of the state public service commission in appointed by—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor
Ans : (D)

53. At the time of appointing the judges of The High Court—
(A) President takes the advice of Chief Minister
(B) President takes the advice of Chief Justice
(C) President consults the Governor
(D) President works on his own judgement own
Ans : (C)

54. In whose name is the budget of the next financial year produced in the state Legislative Assembly?
(A) In the name of the President
(B) In the name of the Prime Minister
(C) In the name of the Chairman of Legislative Assembly
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

55. In which article of the Indian Constitution is the provision of the State Public Service Commission?
(A) Article-315
(B) Article-317
(C) Article-319
(D) Article-323
Ans : (A)

56. Governor appoints the District Magistrate—
(A) With the consent of the Central Govt.
(B) With the consent of President
(C) With the consent of Prime Minister
(D) With the consent of the council of Ministers the state
Ans : (D)

57. Whom among the following has the Governor no right to appoint?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Members of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Judges of the State High Court
(D) Advocate General
Ans : (C)

58. Kalpna Chawla died in the space mission on—
(A) 1st Jan., 2003
(B) 5th Feb., 2003
(C) 3rd Feb., 2003
(D) 1st Feb., 2003
Ans : (D)

59. The first state of the country where all the village are electrified—
(A) Orissa
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)

60. Where is the Headquarters of Mahendargarh district in Haryana ?
(A) Narnaul
(B) Karnal
(C) Kaithal
(D) Bhiwani
Ans : (A)

61. Which unique project is being launched in Haryana to raise the standard of female children in Haryana ?
(A) Indra-Harelli-Saheli-Yojna
(B) Apni Beti-Apna dhan-Yojna
(C) Indra Sahara-Yojna
(D) All the above
Ans : (B)

62. First time the President's rule was imposed in Haryana—
(A) 21st Nov., 1967
(B) 30th April, 1977
(C) 2nd Dec., 1989
(D) 6th April, 1991
Ans : (A)

63. Who is famous with the name of Haryana Kesari ?
(A) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma
(B) Devi Lal
(C) Bansi Lal
(D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma
Ans : (A)

64. When was Ambala established as a cantonment area (Military base) ?
(A) In 1839
(B) In 1841
(C) In 1843
(D) In 1848
Ans : (C)

65. Who was the fIrst Governor of Haryana ?
(A) B. N. Chakravorty
(B) R. S. Narula
(C) Dhanik Lal MandaI
(D) Dharam Veer
Ans : (D)

66. Who was the first Chief Minister of Haryana ?
(A) Banarsi Das Gupta
(B) Rao Virendra Singh
(C) Bhajan Lal
(D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma
Ans : (D)

67. In which district of Haryana is the Mohar Singh Stadium (Mayur) situated?
(A) Faridabad
(B) Ambala
(C) Kurushetra
(D) Yamuna-Nagar
Ans : (A)

68. Which breed of buffaloes is famous in Haryana?
(A) Turra
(B) Murra
(C) Chaspa
(D) Pushpa
Ans : (B)

69. When was Bhiwani textile mill establised at Haryana?
(A) 1932
(B) 1937
(C) 1943
(D) 1948
Ans : (B)

70. Which district of Haryana ranks first in the production of mustard?
(A) Mahendragarh
(B) Faridabad
(C) Rohtak
(D) Panipat
Ans : (A)

71. For which of the following industries is Rewari district of Haryana famous in India—
(A) Brass Utensils Industry
(B) Tilla Shoe Industry
(C) Hero-Honda-Motor Cycle Industry
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

72. Which article manufactured in Haryana is exported to foreign countries?
(A) Brass Utensils
(B) Paint
(C) Liberty Shoes
(D) Wooden Furniture
Ans : (C)

73. Which of the following factories are established at Faridabad ?
(A) Rubber Tyre
(B) Tractor
(C) Refrigerator
(D) All these
Ans : (D)

74. Who constructed the famous 'Sarveshwar Mahadeo Temple' at Kurukshetra ?
(A) J. K. Birla
(B) Baba Tarak Nath
(C) Baba Sarwan Nath
(D) Baba Shivgiri
Ans : (C)

75. Where is the famous and old temple of Sita Mata established at Haryana ?
(A) Gurgaon
(B) Hisar
(C) Narnaul
(D) Rohtak
Ans : (A)

76. At which place of Haryana did a battle between Mohd. Gauri and Prithvi Raj Chauhan take place in Medieval period of 1191 and 1192 ?
(A) Gharonda
(B) Tarawari
(C) Asandh
(D) Nising
Ans : (B)

77. The tomb of Ibrahim Lodi is situated at—
(A) Panipat
(B) Gurgaon
(C) Mahendragarh
(D) Rohtak
Ans : (A)

78. Haryana is bounded by—
(A) Himachal Pradesh in the North, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi in the east, Rajasthan in the South and South-East and Punjab and Chandigarh in the North-West
(B) Himachal Pradeshin the East, Chhattisgarh in the North, Punjab in the South and Uttar Pradesh in the West
(C) Jammu Kashmir in the West, Punjab in the East, Uttar Pradesh in the North and Uttaranchal in the South
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

79. Haryana State is the—
(A) Southern State
(B) North-Western State
(C) Eastern State
(D) South-Eastern-State
Ans : (B)

80. Palwal city of Haryana is in which district of the state?
(A) Panchkula
(B) Fatehabad
(C) Yamuna-Nagar
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (D)

81. Who is the present Governor of Haryana ?
(A) Babu Permanand
(B) T. V. Rajeshwar
(C) Kailash Pati Misra
(D) A. R. Kidwai
Ans : (D)

82. First novel written in Haryanbi language is—
(A) Heru-ki-Kahin
(B) Dan Lila
(C) Surahi Gaiya
(D) Jharufiri
Ans : (D)

83. Who was the founder of Vishal-Haryana Party of Haryana ?
(A) Rao Virendra Singh
(B) Om Prakash Chautala
(C) Hukum Singh
(D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma
Ans : (A)

84. In which part of Haryana are the Siwalik Ranges situated?
(A) South-Eastern
(B) North-Western
(C) North-East
(D) South-West
Ans : (C)

85. "Banwali" the main land of Indus civilization is situated in which district of Haryana—
(A) Hisar
(B) Rewari
(C) Faridabad
(D) Panchkula
Ans : (A)

86. Haryana day is celebrated—
(A) 1st Nov.
(B) 13th Nov.
(C) 1st Dec.
(D) 8th Dec.
Ans : (A)

87. Which state of the country is famous as 'Land of Milk and Curd'—
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttaranchal
(C) Haryana
(D) Punjab
Ans : (C)

88. Where is the Bata Shoe manufacturing factory situated in Haryana ?
(A) Panipat
(B) Faridabad
(C) Bhiwani
(D) Palwal
Ans : (B)

89. Total forested area in Haryana is—
(A) 964 km2
(B) 6940 km2
(C) 2440 km2
(D) 4230 km2
Ans : (A)

90. The working field of famous Nawab Pataudi is—
(A) Literature (Poetry)
(B) Amphitheatre
(C) Sports (Cricket)
(D) Politics
Ans : (C)

91. Mithathal famous for the remains of Indus civilization is situated in—
(A) Jind district
(B) Hisar district
(C) Bhiwani district
(D) All these
Ans : (C)

92. Where is the Manzi Shaib Gurudwara situated?
(A) Kaithal
(B) Jhajjar
(C) Fatehabad
(D) Rewari
Ans : (A)

93. The maximum area in the district of Haryana is—
(A) Ambala
(B) Gurgaon
(C) Bhiwani
(D) Sonipat
Ans : (C)

94. According to population of 2001, Faridabad district ranks first in the state, its population is—
(A) 21,94,586
(B) 24,40,396
(C) 32,80,160
(D) 34,30,264
Ans : (A)

95. Geeta Jutsi the famous player of Haryana is associated with—
(A) Chess
(B) Weight Lifting
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Atheletics
Ans : (D)

96. Which of the following dance is performed by women?
(A) Teej dance
(B) Umru dance
(C) Loor dance
(D) Manjeera dance
Ans : (A)

97. Where is the Panchwati pilgrim place situated in Faridabad ?
(A) Palwal
(B) Hodal
(C) Ballabhgarh
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

98. Which ancestor king of emperor Harshvardhan made the construction of Thaneshwar Mahadev temple near Thaneshwar city?
(A) Prabhakar Vardhan
(B) Nar Vardhan
(C) Puniya Bhuti
(D) Adithya Vardhan
Ans : (C)

99. Which Tomb has been declared as National heritage under the archaeological land and remnants act 1958 ?
(A) Sheikh Fareed
(B) Sheikh-Chehli
(C) Ibrahim Abdullah
(D) Ali Shah Kalander
Ans : (B)

100. In which district is the Tomb of Gulam ruler Rajia Sultana situated?
(A) Ambala
(B) Karnal
(C) Kaithal
(D) Faridabad
Ans : (C)

Quick Revision Notes on Marketing Aptitude

2008-09-28T23:22:00.001-07:00

Quick Revision Notes on Marketing Aptitude

Questions on Marketing Aptitude have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the Bank exams.

1. CTR (Click Through Rate) is related to Advertising metrics.

2. A non-traditional, low-cost, flexible and highly effective marketing is termed as Gorilla marketing.

3. The concept of Gorilla marketing was provided by J.C. Levinson.

4. Deciding initiatives in a short-term, for a longer term orientation is called Strategic marketing.

5. The method of sending promotional items to clients is called Drip marketing.

6. Marketing via e-mail falls under the category of direct marketing.

7. The sale of solution to a problem and not features of an item is called solution positioning.

8. That which can be offered to satisfy a need of the customer is called product.

9. The strategy which is more useful to banks due to provision of services (and not physical products) is selling.

10. A comparison of the business processes with competitors and improving prevailing ones is called bench marketing.

11. An exposure to various other unutilised services of the bank to a customer is called cross selling.

12. During pricing, the factors customers' demand, cost function and the competitors' prices are collectively known as 3Cs.

13. Marketing by the word of the mouth, having a high pass-rate from person to person is called Viral marketing.

14. Creating a 'buzz' in the industry is an example of Viral marketing.

15. A classification of goods/services according to sales volume, ensuring that there is easy access to the more frequently sold goods is called ABC Inventory.

16. The idea that an increase in the demand for consumer goods will cause an increase in the capital goods required for them is known as accelerator principle.

17. A buyer whose latest purchase lies within the last 1-year period is called active buyer.

18. A marketing research undertaken for a particular one-time need is called ad hoc research.

19. When the tax or duty is imposed according to the money 'value' of the goods, it is known as ad valorem tax.

20. A 'likely' interested customer of the bank is termed as a prospect.

21. In marketing, calling on the prospective customers is known as a call.

22. When an organisation head inspires its employees to perform better, it is called motivation.

23. In sellers' market marketing is not required to be undertaken.

24. Availing marketing services from ad hoc suppliers, rather than a centralised source is called a la carte. An example of the practice of a la carte is advertising company.

25. Marketing study that monitors the changes in the consumer attitudes, awareness and uses of a product, is known as AAU.

26. The essence of a product, its quality and competitiveness displayed in the form of letters, symbols and colours is known as branding.

27. The process of planning and executing the concepts, pricing, promotion and distribution of ideas/goods/services to satisfy individual's/organisational goals is called marketing.

28. The process of using research tools to understand a market is called marketing research.

29. A persuading communication between the Company's representative and a prospective buyer lies under the class of personal selling.

30. The development of marketing mix to influence a customer's perceptions of a brand is called positioning.

31. When a marketer persuades a person/group of prospective buyers, the communication is termed as promotion.

Computer Awareness : Quick Revision Notes

2008-09-28T23:17:00.000-07:00

Computer Awareness : Quick Revision Notes

(For Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank, Dena Bank, Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India etc.)
Questions on Computer Awareness have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the Bank exams we present to you the revision notes on Computer Awareness.

1. The earlier computers, which were massive in size, were based on vacuum tubes.
2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC, were actually meant to assist the armed forces.
3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch cards.
4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which pioneered 'stored program', was made possible with the help of the mathematician John von Neumann.
5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly owned by universities and research labs.
6. The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson.
7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert & Mauchly.
8. The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC.
9. IBM was provided software for PCs by Microsoft.
10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated with mainframe computers.
11. The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors.
12. The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel.
13. The term 'micro' (extremely small) denotes 10^-6m.
14. The Harvard student, who chose to write computer programs and dropped studies was Bill Gates.
15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors.
16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers.
17. Binary digits are briefed as bit.
18. A collection of bits is called byte.
19. C⁺⁺, is a computer language.
20. The process of eliminating programming faults is called debugging.
21. Starting up on operating system is called booting.
22. A program used to browse the web is called browser.
23. An error in software designing which can even cause a computer to crash is called bug.
24. Click and double-click are achieved using the mouse.
25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are computer programming languages.
26. The device which sends computer data using a phone line is called MODEM.
27. 'Worm' and 'virus' are actually programs.
28. A 'file' is a unit of information.
29. A megabyte has 10⁶(million) bytes.
30. A small, single-site network is called LAN.
31. A processor that collects several data and sends them over a single line is called bridge.
32. 'Nano' stands for one billionth part.
33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit code is 2ⁿ.
34. The part of a computer that works with the data/programs is called CPU.
35. To convert a binary number to a decimal, we have to express it in power of 2.
36. www stands for world wide web.
37. Mathematics employed in computers is called Boolean algebra.
38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte.
39. The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II.
40. 'PARAM' is a supercomputer.
41. A website containing periodic posts is called blog.
42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is temporarily stored in the clipboard.
43. http stands for hyper text transfer protocol.
44. The unwanted or non-requested emails are called "spam".
45. A computer framed to give various network services is called server.

CAT Prep.:General Awareness

2008-09-28T23:11:00.000-07:00

CAT Prep.:General Awareness Questions/Answers

General Awareness

1. Which company's famously advertised vision statement is 'The Network is the Computer'?
(A) Cisco Systems
(B) Lucent Technologies
(C) Sun Microsystems
(D) Nortel Networks
Answer : (C)

2. The software company I-flex Solutions was originally a division of which famous financial services company?
(A) Citicorp
(B) ICICI
(C) HSBC
(D) ABN Amro Bank
Ans : (A)

3. Which former advertising personality has recently been named the Undersecretary of State for 'public diplomacy and public affairs' of the US in an exercise to rebrand the US following the September 11 terrorist strikes?
(A) Charlotte Beers
(B) Jay Chiat
(C) Martin Sorrell
(D) George Lois
Ans : (A)

4. Which premium international range of luggage was recently launched in India by BlowPlast?
(A) Samsonite
(B) Strolley
(C) American Tourister
(D) Delsey
Ans : (D)

5. This year saw the launch of Yahoo!, Amazon.com and the famous launch of the Orange mobile phone service in the UK. Which year was this?
(A) 1992
(B) 1994
(C) 1995
(D) 1993
Ans : (B)

6. Henry Ford revolutionised the car market with the first mass- produced car, the Ford Model T. In which year was it launched?
(A) 1924
(B) 1912
(C) 1908
(D) 1897
Ans : (C)

7. Mr. Shiv Nadar is the Chairman of which of the following groups of companies?
(A) Wipro
(B) HCL
(C) Aptech
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which company owns the footwear brand - Stryde?
(A) Woodland
(B) Bata
(C) Tata International
(D) Hindustan Lever
Ans : (C)

9. It was the brand that made David Ogilvy famous. Which shirt brand's ads had the famous man with an eye patch in the 1950s, which catapulted David Ogilvy to fame?
(A) Van Heusen
(B) Arrow Shirts
(C) Hathaway
(D) Dockers
Ans : (C)

10. Dr. Pepper is a famous brand of—
(A) Iced tea
(B) Peppermint
(C) Soft Drinks
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. In the case of a test tube baby—
(A) Fertilization takes place inside the test tube
(B) Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube
(C) Fertilization takes place outside the mother's body
(D) Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube
Ans : (C)

12. Who elects the President of India?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) People of India
(D) Parliament and State Assemblies
Ans : (D)

13. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution of India by the—
(A) First Amendment
(B) Tenth Amendment
(C) Thirty-second Amendment
(D) Forty-second Amendment
Ans : (D)

14. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through—
(A) glass
(B) vacuum
(C) air
(D) water
Ans : (A)

15. The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is—
(A) 50 mn years
(B) 100 mn years
(C) 250 mn years
(D) 365 mn years
Ans : (C)

16. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of—
(A) Nepal
(B) U K
(C) Spain
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)

17. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of—
(A) only elected members of both Housed of Parliament
(B) only Rajya Sabha members
(C) all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
(D) all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)

18. In which one of the following states of India is it legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one living wife?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Goa
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

19. Where did Buddha die?
(A) Lumbini
(B) Kusinagara
(C) Pavapuri
(D) Magadha
Ans : (B)

20. What was the main difference between the Indus Valley Civilization and Vedic Civilization?
(A) Indus Valley Civilization was urban, while the Vedic Civilization was rural.
(B) "Pipal" tree was worshiped in Indus Valley Civilization, while "Burgad" tree was worshiped in Vedic Civilization.
(C) The main emphasis in Indus Valley Civilization was on trade while in the Vedic Age was on religion.
(D) Indus Valley Civilization believed in non-violence while Vedic Civilization had no hard and fast rules about violence.
Ans : (A)

21. All of the following are constituents of RNA molecule except—
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Thymine
(D) Uracil
Ans : (C)

22. The father of modern biology is—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Darwin
(C) Mendel
(D) Vesalius
Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following seeds will normalize blood sugar level?
(A) Coriander
(B) Mustard
(C) Cumin
(D) Fenugreek
Ans : (D)

24. The point at which solid, liquid and gaseous forms of a substance co-exist is called—
(A) sublimation point
(B) distillation point
(C) triple point
(D) melting point
Ans : (C)

25. Which among the following substances is used as a lubricant?
(A) Quartz
(B) Silica
(C) Graphite
(D) Nickel
Ans : (C)

26. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at—
(A) The North Pole
(B) The South Pole
(C) The Equator
(D) The center of the Earth
Ans : (D)

27. Earth quake waves travel fastest in—
(A) Soil
(B) Molten rock
(C) Water
(D) Flexible rock
Ans : (C)

28. The angle between the geographical meridian and magnetic meridian is called—
(A) Angle of dip
(B) Angle of declination
(C) Angle of inclination
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

29. What is the currency of Mexico?
(A) Lira
(B) Peso
(C) Mexican dollars
(D) Krones
Ans : (B)

30. The Essar group of companies has been promoted by—
(A) Ruias
(B) Ambanis
(C) Goenkas
(D) Kanorias
Ans : (A)

31. One of the following liquor brands is not owned by United Breweries—
(A) Kalyani Black Label
(B) Blue Riband
(C) McDowells
(D) Bagpiper
Ans : (D)

32. Amtrex air conditioners has a technical collaboration with—
(A) Sanyo
(B) Mitsubishi
(C) Hitachi
(D) Carrier
Ans : (D)

33. Marlboro Cigarette is owned by—
(A) ITC
(B) Godfrey-Philips
(C) Philip Morris
(D) British American Tobacco
Ans : (C)

34. Who is the CEO of Microsoft?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Paul Allen
(C) Larry Ellison
(D) Steve Ballnes
Ans : (D)

35. One of the following is not an Insurance Company—
(A) ICICI Prudential
(B) HDFC Natwest
(C) OM Kotak Mahindra
(D) Birla Sun Life
Ans : (B)

36. What is the currency of Portugal?
(A) Escudo
(B) Guilder
(C) Mark
(D) Schilling
Ans : (A)

37. One of the following personalities is not associated with the Indian auto sector—
(A) Suresh Krishna
(B) Venu Srinivasan
(C) Anand Mahindra
(D) Venugopal Dhoot
Ans : (D)

38. One of the following companies is not in the area of air-conditioning & refrigeration—
(A) BPL
(B) Thermax
(C) Lloyd
(D) Carrier Aircon
Ans : (C)

39. How many countries are a part of the European union?
(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 12
Ans : (B)

40. Who is the attorney general of United States of America?
(A) Ashcroft
(B) Powell
(C) Rumsfeld
(D) Cheney
Ans : (A)

41. When was the generic domain name (Top Level Domain - TLD) .com introduced?
(A) 1989
(B) 1985
(C) 1994
(D) 1991
Ans : (B)

42. Who is the prime minister of Israel?
(A) Benajamin Netanyahu
(B) Ariel Sharon
(C) Shaul Mofaz
(D) Goldamyer
Ans : (B)

43. What was the significant about the purchase of a kilo of lychees on the French island of Reunion, located in the Indian Ocean?
(A) They were the first lot of lychees exported from India.
(B) It was the first official purchase using the new currency Euro.
(C) It was done by to commemorate the release of the new France with Princess Diana's image on it.
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

148. Cash Reserve Ratio ( CRR) and Stautory Liquidity Ratio (SLR ) are terms most closely related to which of the following industries/markets—
(A) Stock Exchange
(B) Banking
(C) Mutual Fund
(D) Income Tax
Ans : (B)

45. What is common to all of the following names - Eduardo Camano, Adolfo Rodriguez Saa, Ramon Puerta and Fernando de la Rua?
(A) They were all former Presidents of Argentina.
(B) They are the dreaded drug lords of South America
(C) They own together 70% of the world's Silver mines.
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

46. The video games X box is a product of—
(A) Sega
(B) Sony
(C) Intel
(D) Microsoft
Ans : (D)

47. It was acknowledged as the second-most dangerous computer virus in history, after the Love Bug virus. Name this virus, which struck in 2001—
(A) Melissa
(B) Code Red
(C) C-Brain
(D) Major Domo
Ans : (B)

48. What does the letters XP stand for in the product Microsoft XP?
(A) Extended product
(B) Extra Pampering
(C) Experience
(D) Entry level product
Ans : (C)

49. Which business and media tycoon won the elections to become Head of State in Italy amidst widespread clouds of scandal?
(A) Guillani Giovanni
(B) Joe Pacci
(C) Antonio Machiaveli
(D) Silvio Berusconi
Ans : (D)

50. Who is the author who created the character Dilbert?
(A) David Scott
(B) Scott Robert
(C) Robert Williams
(D) Scott Adams
Ans : (D)

51. Under what name is MTNL marketing its GSM based mobile telephony?
(A) Swarna
(B) Dolphin
(C) Speed
(D) Vayu
Ans : (B)

52. What is the name of the branded petrol with cleansing additives that is being marketed by HPCL?
(A) Power
(B) Premium
(C) Speed
(D) Clean X
Ans : (A)

53. Under what name is MTNL marketing its CDMA based WiLL service in Mumbai and Delhi?
(A) Dolphin
(B) Swarna
(C) Garuda
(D) Seema
Ans : (C)

54. To which business group did the Ambanis of Reliance Group sell their holding in Larsen and Toubro?
(A) RP Goenkas
(B) A V Birla
(C) Kanorias
(D) Mittals
Ans : (B)

55. Name the brand that was launched and promoted by a famous father-son duo—
(A) ICICI Credit cards
(B) Parket Beta
(C) Maruti Versa
(D) All of these.
Ans : (C)

56. What is the sub brand of the new car that Toyota is launching in India?
(A) Accord
(B) Jupiter
(C) C Planet
(D) Camry
Ans : (D)

57. With which brand would you identify the famous advertising slogan 'Think Different'?
(A) Apple
(B) IBM
(C) Wipro
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

58. Which country is the company Nestle head quartered?
(A) Sweden
(B) Switzerland
(C) The Netherlands
(D) Luxemburg
Ans : (B)

59. What is the brand name of the range of shoes and apparel for children under the age of five, that Reebok plans to introduce shortly?
(A) Weebok
(B) Kids
(C) Kidsport
(D) Tyke
Ans : (A)

60. Which multinational packaged food company has an equity stake in Britannia?
(A) Danone
(B) Heinz
(C) Frito Lays
(D) Schweppes
Ans : (A)

61. Who is the chairperson of Bharti Group?
(A) Raj Mittal
(B) Alok Mittal
(C) Sunil Mittal
(D) Ramen Mittal
Ans : (C)

62. Which billionaire businessman has been elected Mayor of New York, replacing the popular Rudy Giuliani?
(A) William Clay Ford
(B) Larry Ellison
(C) James Walton
(D) Michael Bloomberg
Ans : (D)

63. Which insurance company, launched recently in India, will be using Snoopy from the cartoon series Peanuts in its advertising?
(A) Aviva
(B) HDFC Standard
(C) MetLife
(D) Sun Life
Ans : (C)

64. Which is the home country of the famous design firm Ikea?
(A) Finland
(B) Sweden
(C) Switzerland
(D) Denmark
Ans : (B)

65. 'One world. One family. One festival' - is the slogan used in advertising—
(A) Chinese New year
(B) Hong Kong's annual shopping festival
(C) Dubai's shopping festival
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

66. Which companies chips power more than 60% of the world's cell phones?
(A) Nokia
(B) Intel
(C) Motorola
(D) Texas Instruments
Ans : (D)

67. Who is the famous author of the book What they don't teach you at Harvard Business School?
(A) Stephen R Covey
(B) Mack McCormak
(C) John Love
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

68. Who is the RBI governor?
(A) Venkatraman
(B) Brijesh Mishra
(C) Ranjith Sau
(D) Bimal Jalan
Ans : (D)

69. Iodex brand of pain balm is owned by—
(A) Smithkline Beecham
(B) Wyeth Laboratories
(C) Glaxo
(D) Dr. Reddy's Laboratories
Ans : (A)

70. Which is the leading international audit firm that is facing serious charges on account of lapse in accounting practices?
(A) Ferguson
(B) PWH
(C) Arthur Andersen
(D) KPMG
Ans : (C)

71. Which family owns the Hero group of companies?
(A) Munjals
(B) Mansingh
(C) Firodias
(D) Hindujas
Ans : (A)

72. Who led the "Ocean to Sky" expedition that travelled along the Ganga (Ganges) river to its source?
(A) Sir Edmund Hillary
(B) Tenzing Norgay
(C) Chris Bonington
(D) Doug Scott
Ans : (A)

73. Hero Global is a venture promoted by the Munjal group
(A) to market Hero Honda two wheelers in the overseas market.
(B) to sell Hero bicycles in the overseas market.
(C) to build a automobile design lab of international repute.
(D) to set up company owned dealer network in India.
Ans : (C)

74. J. D. Power is a name associated with—
(A) an independent power producing company in New Delhi.
(B) a power plant equipment manufacturing company.
(C) a automotive battery manufacturing company.
(D) an automobile customer survey organization.
Ans : (D)

75. What does ICANN stand for?
(A) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(B) International Center for Agro Nutrients and Nourishment
(C) Indian Council for Algorithm, Numbers and Notions.
(D) International council for Approved Names and Numbers.
Ans : (A)

76. "Connecting People," is the by line of which company—
(A) Philips
(B) Motorola
(C) Ericsson
(D) Nokia
Ans : (D)

77. Which founding father pioneered the idea of a national bank?
(A) Hamilton
(B) Jefferson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (A)

78. Who was Karl Marx's main collaborator on his famous works?
(A) V I Lenin
(B) Max Weber
(C) Fredrick Engles
(D) Joseph Stalin
Ans : (C)

79. Which of the following foreign partner / collaborator pair is not Correct?
(A) HTA; J.Walter Thomson
(B) Chaitra; Leo Burnett
(C) O and M; WPP Group
(D) Mudra; DMB&B
Ans : (D)

80. Hewlett Packard, the famous Computer company is named after—
(A) Its promoters, Hewlett and Packard
(B) The city in which they commenced their operation initially
(C) The street in which their first office was located.
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

81. Who's 'curve' did President Reagan use as the basis for his 'Trickle Down' economic policy?
(A) Keynes
(B) Ricardo
(C) Laffer
(D) Smith
Ans : (C)

82. Which group of people have been involved in the terrorist activities and rampant killing spree after the death of King Birendra in Nepal?
(A) The Gurkhas
(B) The Maoists
(C) The Khukris
(D) The Awomi clan
Ans : (B)

83. This company is the first to develop a new handheld computer series featuring a combination of Intel components and Microsoft software?
(A) HP
(B) Sony
(C) Compaq
(D) Acer
Ans : (A)

84. Which of the following companies was forced to shutdown its digital music service because of music industry lawsuits for piracy?
(A) Musiccity
(B) Morpheus
(C) Livewire
(D) Napster
Ans : (D)

85. Who was sued recently by BIAX for infringement of computer patents?
(A) HP
(B) Compaq
(C) Microsoft
(D) Apple
Ans : (D)

86. Which country is the largest producer of natural rubber in the world?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Thailand
(D) Burma
Ans : (C)

87. With which of the following companies has the Department of Posts and Telegraph of India tied up to provide a comprehensive range of financial services?
(A) LIC of India
(B) Corporation Bank
(C) Master Card International
(D) Visa International
Ans : (C)

88. Which cable network is to be the sole provider of sports information to MSN?
(A) STAR Sports
(B) ESPN
(C) Sportstock.com
(D) Channel 9
Ans : (A)

89. Who is the current Defense Secretary of the United States of America?
(A) Donald Rumsfeld
(B) Colin Powell
(C) Mr. Ashcroft
(D) Dick Cheney
Ans : (B)

90. Beech King and Cessna are popular models of—
(A) Cars
(B) Aircraft
(C) Ships
(D) Transport vans
Ans : (B)

91. Which antibiotic can cure Anthrax, if detected at an early stage?
(A) Amoxycillin
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Cephalospirin
(D) Ciprofloxacin
Ans : (D)

92. The farmers of _______________ were involved in violent protests against falling rice prices and US-led globalization as symbolized by WTO?
(A) France
(B) Indonesia
(C) Denmark
(D) S.Korea
Ans : (D)

93. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the Government of India to be mixed with petrol?
(A) Methanol
(B) Ethanol
(C) Kerosene
(D) Butanol
Ans : (B)

94. Which of the year in which Md. Ghazni first invaded India?
(A) 1220 A.D
(B) 1001 A.D
(C) 1348 A.D
(D) 1196 A.D
Ans : (B)

95. Which is the longest running stage play in the world?
(A) The Cats
(B) The Mouse Trap
(C) Three Blind Mice
(D) Romeo and Juliet
Ans : (B)

96. "Be the first to know" is the baseline of which company?
(A) BBC
(B) STAR News
(C) CNBC
(D) CNN
Ans : (D)

97. Which advertising agency took over the agency Saatchi and Saatchi last year to become one of the largest advertising firms in the world?
(A) Euro RSCG
(B) Publicis
(C) Young and Rubicam
(D) Havas
Ans : (B)

98. India's first private FM radio station Radio City opened in Bangalore recently. Which company is the promoter behind this venture?
(A) The Times of India
(B) Mid-Day
(C) Star India
(D) Zee
Ans : (C)

99. Which bathing soap advertises with the baseline, 'For total skincare since 1918' in India?
(A) Camay
(B) Mysore Sandal
(C) Hamam
(D) Lux
Ans : (B)

100. The NewYork Mayor Rudolph Guiliani rejected a $10 mn donation offered by this billionaire prince.
(A) Prince Awaleed Bin Talal of S.Arabia
(B) Prince Ahmed Bin Tariq of S.Arabia
(C) Prince Md. Shah of Iran
(D) Prince Khaleel Mohammed of Persia
Ans : (A)

101. Which one of the following partnership in the domestic insurance sector is inCorrect?
(A) HDFC - Standard Life
(B) Birla - Sun Life
(C) Tata - Allianz
(D) Max - New York Life
Ans : (C)

102. Royal Stag brand of Whisky is owned by—
(A) United Breweries
(B) Shaw Wallace and Co
(C) Seagram
(D) Mohan Meakin
Ans : (C)

103. "Everything from cancer to heart attacks. Covered for 70 paise a day," is the baseline of an advertisement by—
(A) Birla Sun Life
(B) Cancer Institute WIA
(C) ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
(D) OM Kotak Mahindra Life Insurance
Ans : (C)

104. Which Indian woman was recently included in the Fortune magazine's global list of 50 most powerful women in business?
(A) Lalita Gupte
(B) Meena Venkatesh
(C) Rama Bijapurkar
(D) Tina Ambani
Ans : (A)

105. As per the recent Global Competitiveness Report from the World Economic Forum, which country replaced US as the most competitive economy in the world?
(A) Canada
(B) Sweden
(C) Finland
(D) Singapore
Ans : (C)

106. What is common to Bethlehem Steel, Polaroid and Swissair?
(A) All companies owned by GE
(B) All recently applied for bankruptcy protection
(C) Their founders committed suicide
(D) All of these companies were recently targets of successful hostile takeover
Ans : (B)

107. What famous brand name is derived from a combination of two words, which mean 'dead' in French and 'one' in German?
(A) Dettol
(B) Mortein
(C) Martini
(D) Ritter
Ans : (B)

108. Which is the longest running TV cartoon in history, first launched by Warner Brothers in 1969 exclusively for television, and is now a popular fare on the Cartoon Network?
(A) Scooby Doo
(B) Tom and Jerry
(C) Popeye
(D) Johnny Bravo
Ans : (A)

109. Which company has recently launched a range of biscuits in India following its takeover of Nutrine confectionery?
(A) Hindustan Lever
(B) Marico
(C) Parke Davis
(D) Sara Lee
Ans : (D)

110. In the latest Forbes List of wealthiest Americans, 3 out of the top 4 richest men in USA have made their wealth from one company. Which one ?
(A) Standard Oil (Exxon)
(B) Microsoft
(C) De Beers
(D) Berkshire Hathaway
Ans : (B)

111. Which is the third highest peak in India?
(A) Kanchenjunga
(B) Nanga Parbat
(C) Gasher Brum
(D) Dunagiri
Ans : (B)

112. Which is the largest airport in the world?
(A) Singapore airport
(B) International airport at Kaula Lumpur
(C) Heathrow at London
(D) King Khalid at Saudi Arabia
Ans : (D)

113. In which year did Alexander the great die?
(A) 332 B.C
(B) 328 B.C
(C) 323 B.C
(D) 356 B.C
Ans : (C)

114. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi launch The Dandi March?
(A) 1924
(B) 1930
(C) 1941
(D) 1942
Ans : (B)

115. Eugenics is the study of
(A) the development of embryos
(B) the merits of legalizing mercy killing
(C) the production of better offspring by careful selection of parents
(D) genetical composition of plant population in relation to their habitats
Ans : (C)

116. In which year did Thomas Alva Edison invent the electric lamp?
(A) 1854
(B) 1879
(C) 1904
(D) 1888
Ans : (B)

117. What is the measure of the length of a standard tennis court?
(A) 54 ft
(B) 28 ft
(C) 84 ft
(D) 78 ft
Ans : (D)

118. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth Games?
(A) S. Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Malaysia
(D) China
Ans : (C)

119. Who is the president of the World Bank?
(A) Michel Camdessus
(B) John Wolfensohn
(C) Emeka Anyaoku
(D) Jose Maria Ruda
Ans : (B)

120. Who was the first Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(A) Richard Travithick
(B) Robert Walpole
(C) Sir George Cayley
(D) Robert Peary
Ans : (B)

121. Which advertising agency is behind the setting-up, in 1991, of MICA, India's first college focussed on advertising and communications?
(A) Ogilvy and Mather
(B) Saatchi and Saatchi
(C) Mudra
(D) Hindustan Thomson Associates
Ans : (C)

122. What famous car brand, originally from the former Czechoslovakia, was taken over by Volkswagen in the 1990s?
(A) Skoda
(B) Saab
(C) Piaggio
(D) Volvo
Ans : (A)

123. What is the title of the original BBC TV series on which the Hindi TV series, Kamzor Kadi Kaun, based?
(A) Who wants to be a millionaire?
(B) Treasure mine
(C) Mastermind
(D) The weakest link
Ans : (D)

124. The loyalty program of which company is known as "First Citizen's Club"?
(A) Shopper's Stop
(B) ABN Amro Bank
(C) Taj group of Hotels
(D) Air India
Ans : (A)

125. The following is the baseline found in the ad of which product "The man with the smooth edge"
(A) Four Square cigarettes
(B) Gillette Mach 3 shaving system
(C) Palmolive shaving cream
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

126. Who invented Parachute?
(A) Leonardo da Vinci
(B) Scanderberg
(C) Sigismund
(D) Van Gogh
Ans : (A)

127. McDonald's, in an unrelated diversification, is planning to set up a chain of hotels. Name the new brand.
(A) Pleasant stay
(B) Golden Arches
(C) McStay
(D) Holidayz
Ans : (B)

128. Which company unsuccessfully launched a soap under the brand Protex in India?
(A) SmithKline Beecham
(B) Hindustan Lever
(C) Reckitt and Colman
(D) Colgate Palmolive
Ans : (D)

129. Calloway, is a leading international brand of—
(A) Condoms
(B) Guns
(C) Binoculars
(D) Golf equipment
Ans : (D)

130. Which famous CEO was featured in the endorsement ad for Microsoft XP with the quote, "When I saw Windows XP in action, I was amazed. How did Microsoft get hold of my wishlist?"?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Azim Premji
(C) N R Narayana Murthy
(D) Arun Jain
Ans : (C)

131. Which automobile major has made a debut in the Formula One racing circuit in 2002 with its team led by the drivers Allan McNish and Mike Salo?
(A) Honda
(B) Jaguar
(C) Saab
(D) Toyota
Ans : (D)

132. Which famous company started as Asahi Optical in 1919 - before adopting its current name in 1957?
(A) Yashica
(B) Asahi Glasses
(C) Pentax
(D) Nikon
Ans : (C)

133. What brand name was given , in 1924, by the Mayor of Tokyo when he released the first watch produced by Shokosha Watch Company?
(A) Seiko
(B) Citizen
(C) Tissot
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

134. The advertisement of which product carried the baseline 'Mom said, "Always boil the water". Moms are seldom wrong'—
(A) Ion Exchange
(B) Zero B
(C) Ford Ikon
(D) KLM Airline
Ans : (C)

135. Who has authored the latest business best-seller *Big Brands, Big Trouble?
(A) Al Ries
(B) Laura Ries
(C) Naomi
(D) Jack Trout
Ans : (D)

136. Which company owns the famous cigarette brands Charminar and Charms?
(A) Godfrey Philips
(B) Philip Morris
(C) ITC
(D) VST Industries
Ans : (D)

137. What is the name of the instrument used to measure blood pressure?
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Sphygmomanometer
Ans : (D)

138. Which of the following countries fought the first of the opium wars?
(A) Russia - China
(B) Britain - Indonesia
(C) China - Britain
(D) Japan - China
Ans : (C)

139. Nicolas Leonard Sadi Carnot, the noted French physicist is associated with what branch of study?
(A) Thermodynamics
(B) Sub atomic particle theory
(C) Superconductivity
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

140. Identify the odd man out
(A) Standard and Poor
(B) Moody's
(C) Forrester
(D) ICRA
Ans : (D)

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam., 2008 ( Public Administration )

2008-09-28T23:06:00.000-07:00

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam., 2008

( Public Administration )

1. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD) ?
(A) Grid approach
(B) Survey feedback method
(C) Process consultation
(D) Peter principle

2. In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which variable is used along with the concern for people ?
(A) Concern for external environment
(B) Concern for flexibility
(C) Concern for production
(D) Concern for managing change

3. Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?
(A) Charismatic
(B) Exploitive-authoritative
(C) Consultative
(D) Participative-group

4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets—
1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.
2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.
3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

5. Who is/are the author(s) of the well-known book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intragroup conflicts in an organization ?
(A) A. F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(B) K. Smith and D. Berg
(C) S. Ghoshal
(D) C. K. Prahlad

6. John Woodward is known for her contribution in which area ?
(A) Task technology approach to organizational design
(B) Environmental approach to organizational design
(C) Communication systems in an organization
(D) Feedback control in an organization

7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?
(A) Technical education in India
(B) Public health in India
(C) Development of airports in India
(D) Development of ports in India

8. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?
(A) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner
(B) By the Supreme Court of India
(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed
(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

10. Which one among the following conducts the “Census of Central Government Employees” and publishes the Report thereof ?
(A) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India
(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India
(C) Planning Commission of India
(D) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?
(A) Gouldner
(B) Merton
(C) Barnard
(D) Simon

13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers—
(A) Are essentially lazy
(B) Are motivated only by more pay
(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under ‘situational design theory’ ?
(A) Behavioural approach
(B) Neo-classical, approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Bureaucratic model

15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?
(A) H. A. Simon
(B) J. D. Millet
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Chester I. Barnard

16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?
1. Coercive power
2. Technical power
3. Referent power
4. Police power
5. Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3 and 5

17. In ‘Management Grid Theory’ of Blake and Mouton when the ‘concern for people’ is the highest, what is the leadership pattern called ?
(A) ‘Impoverished’
(B) ‘People-centric’
(C) ‘Team Manager’
(D) ‘Country Club’

18. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?
1. Aggressiveness
2. Desire to attain fame
3. Independence
4. Social recognition

5. Self-confidence Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

19. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements—
Ethics Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U. S. Congress was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that—
1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.
2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.
3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.
4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) N. Umapathy
(B) Amilai Etzioni
(C) Deming
(D) Chris Argyris

22. Consider the following statements—
The essential difference between closed and open models of organization is differing perception about—
1. Human nature.
2. Organizational environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?
(A) Customer driven government
(B) Entrepreneurial government
(C) Rationality in decision making
(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 4 and 5

25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from ‘charisma’.
3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept)
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Constructive conflict
(c) Scalar principle
(d) Grapevine
List-II (Contributor)
1. L. Urwick
2. F. Taylor
3. E. Mayo
4. M. Weber
5. M. Follet
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 5
(B) 1 5 4 3
(C) 2 5 1 3
(D) 1 3 4 5

27. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Book)
(a) Human Organization
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization
(c) New Patterns of Management
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization
List-II (Author)
1. Rensis Likert
2. Elton Mayo
3. Henry Fayol
4. Max Weber
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

28. According to classical theorists, how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an administrative organization characterized ?
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Legitimacy of rule, according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?
1. Tradition
2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict
4. Professional competence
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. Which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of Post Modern Public Administration ?
(A) Critical Theory
(B) Neo Taylorism
(C) Rational Theory
(D) Public Choice Theory

31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science
(b) Development administration is goal and action oriented
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient
(d) Development is both process and purpose
List-II
1. Weidner
2. Hahn-Been Lee
3. R. Dahl
4. V. Ostrom
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid : Y. Dror would not so much flatten as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
2. A change in : Vilfredo Pareto economic organization that makes one or more members of society better off without making anyone worse off
3. Metapolicy Policy for : John Pfiffner policy making procedures
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves—
(A) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches
(B) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches
(C) Adoption of legal-formal institutional approaches
(D) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

35. Consider the following statements—
Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on—
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following statements—
According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements—
Public-private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to—
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements—
In the course of Waldo-Simon debate on the theme of ‘Science’ of administration, Waldo questioned Simon’s ‘facts-values’ division, as—
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements—
1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.
2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization—
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists.
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?
(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(B) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(C) The leadership styles of two managers
(D) Motivational needs of two employees

42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Salary —Motivator
(B) Status —Hygiene factor
(C) Growth —Motivator
(D) Security —Hygiene factor

43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Situational leadership theory—Hersey-Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements—
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust, with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?
1. Urban poverty alleviation.
2. Planning for economic and social development.
3. Regulation for tanneries.
4. Urban forestry.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Consider the following statements—
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral.
2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?
1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.
2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements—
1. The Constitution (Seventythird Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution (Seventyfourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements—
All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India.
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance. Which of the statements given above is correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None

50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill ?
1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Alteration of any tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?
(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State
(B) Legislature of the State
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) District Collector

52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to conditions of service of Members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Minister of Law
(D) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission

53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment
(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment
(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment
(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office / Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Cabinet Secretariat

55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?
(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions—(Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.
Reason (R) : The Second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) : It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.

59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.
Reason (R) : Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership style will be effective ?
(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands
(B) Leader-member relations
(C) Task structures
(D) Leader’s position power

62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?
1. Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. Communal violence.
3. An integrated domestic market.
4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
(A) A. M. Ahmadi
(B) A. S. Anand
(C) M. N. Venkatachalaiah
(D) J. S. Verma

64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.
2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.
3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?
(A) 11th Finance Commission
(B) 12th Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission

66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?
1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by funding from the University Grants Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?
(A) 1.4.2008
(B) 1.4.2009
(C) 1.4.2010
(D) 1.4.2011

68. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Commission/Post of the Union of India)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India
List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)
1. 148
2. 280
3. 315
4. 324
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?
(A) The Ministry of Agriculture
(B) The Ministry of Water Resources
(C) The Ministry of Rural Development
(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)—
1. The scheme is being implemented by the State Governments.
2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50 : 50 funds sharing basis.
3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements—
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Who among the following further developed the Politics-Administration dichotomy—a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?
(A) H. Fayol
(B) L. Gulick
(C) L. Urwick
(D) F. Goodrow

73. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Talcott Parsons
(b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) M. P. Follett
List-II
1. Creative Experience
2. Inside Bureaucracy
3. The Structure of Social Action
4. Work and the Nature of Man
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?
(A) Nomological deductivism
(B) Professionalisation of public administration
(C) Debureaucratisation of administration
(D) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’

75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. The Profession of Government—B. Chapman
2. Development Administration—La Palambora
3. Bureaucracy and Political Development—P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems, made possible by rising level of diffraction.
Who among the following gave the above definition ?
(A) Edward Weidner
(B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?
(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries
(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development
(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)—
1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.
2. Presently, only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

79. The ‘Line and Staff’ form of organization first originated in which one of the following ?
(A) Educational Administration
(B) Municipal Administration
(C) Military Administration
(D) Public Administration

80. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor
(b) Chester I. Barnard
(c) Chris Argyris and E. W. Bakke
(d) Kurt Lewin
List-II
1. Field Force Model
2. Fusion Process Theory
3. Zone of indifference
4. Pig iron experiment
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?
1. Differential piecework plan.
2. Separation of planning and execution.
3. Time study.
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3 only

82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?
(A) Relating to production and adaptation
(B) Relating to buying and selling
(C) Relating to liaison with the governments
(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?
(A) Effective use of specialized facilities
(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(D) Effective top-management control

85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?
1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.
2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority.
3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.
4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 4, 2 and 1

86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Subject)
(a) Nonprogrammed decisions
(b) Programmed decisions
(c) Emphasis on data storage
(d) Emphasis on data manipulation
List-II (Related to)
1. Lower-level managers
2. Upper-level managers
3. Decision support system
4. Management Information System
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?
(A) Job design
(B) Work measurement
(C) Decision under uncertainty
(D) Training program for new recruits

88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U. K.—
The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for—
1. A complete overhaul of administrative training.
2. More professionalism.
3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper : Incremental budget
incentive for managers to
develop innovative ideas

2. Increases staff motivation : Zero-based budget

3. The R & D department : Zero-based budget
is threatened whereas
production department
benefits

4. The impact of change : Incremental budget
can be seen quickly

Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?
(A) French Revolution of 1789
(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847
(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946
(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) L. Urwick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Frank Goodnow

92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?
(A) Systems theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Human Relations theory
(D) Scientific Management theory

94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?
(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(B) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

95. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour : A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(B) H. A. Simon and Chester I. Barnard
(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow
(D) A. Maslow and Chester I.Barnard

96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?
(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Environment and Forests

97. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?
1. Cultural
2. Perceptual
3. Ideological
4. Technological
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition ?
1. The idea goes against the open model.
2. It is against the closed model.
3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

99. In the U. K. the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?
(A) Whyatt Report
(B) Atkinson Report
(C) William Report
(D) Northcote-Trevelyan Report

100. Effective public participation in development projects majorly needs which of the following ?
1. Occasional consultation
2. Active association with the whole project cycle
3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative
4. Gender sensitivity
5. Poverty sensitivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 4 and 5

101. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Zone of acceptance
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Mixed scanning
List-II
1. H. Simon
2. Etzioni
3. Chester Barnard
4. A. Maslow
5. F. Herzberg
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 4 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 5
(C) 5 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 5

102. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘state mystifying’ institution ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse-Tung
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. I. Lenin

103. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”.
This statement is credited to whom among the following ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) F. A. Nigro
(C) O. Tead
(D) C. Merriam

104. Consider the following statements about budget—
1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.
2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration.
3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.
4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

105. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following ?
1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.
2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.
3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compromise.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Davis Committee
(b) Masterman Committee
(c) Second Hoover Committee
(d) Franks Committee
List-II
1. Political activities of Civil Servants
2. Senior Executive Service
3. Official Secrets Act
4. Method-II
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

107. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by—
(A) The Government of India only
(B) The Government of India
and the Reserve Bank of India
(C) The Reserve Bank of India only
(D) The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India

108. The Code of Ethics for public services developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following ?
1. Respect for public interest, Constitution and laws.
2. Personal integrity, professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations.
3. High salaries, quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

109. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A. ?
(A) F. Roosevelt
(B) A. Jackson
(C) T. Jefferson
(D) G. Washington

110. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List I (Body/Feature)
(a) National Personnel Authority
(b) Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’
(c) Doctrine of Rule of Law
(d) Commune—A unit of local self-government
List II (Country)
1. United States of America
2. France
3. U. K.
4. Japan
Codes :
(a) '(b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

111. Consider the following statements—
Informal organizations/groups within formal ones come into being because—
1. They are created by the top management in an organization.
2. They facilitate communication within different units/levels of an organization.
3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

112. Consider the following statements—
In the ambiguous and uncertainty- ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense-making perspective under which—
1. Preferences may be easy to identify.
2. Choices may be contradictory and unclear.
3. Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

113. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations ?
(A) Philip Selznick
(B) H. A. Simon
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Peter Drucker

114. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(A) Rewards and sanctions
(B) Social disapproval
(C) Legitimacy
(D) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability

115. In explaining administrative decision-making, Simon’s decision- theory focussed on which one of the following ?
(A) The single best choice made by the decision-maker
(B) The limits of information availability in the organization
(C) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator
(D) Bounded rationality and satisficing

116. While dealing with superiorsubordinate communication, the theory of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following ?
(A) Emphasis on task directives
(B) Communication on organizational policy and procedures
(C) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates
(D) Superior’s managerial capacity

117. The behavioural approach led to administrative research on which of the following ?
1. Motivation studies.
2. Decision making studies.
3. Organizational structures.
4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

118. Consider the following statements—
According to Barnard, authority is accepted in an organization only when—
1. The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.
2. The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

119. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors” ?
(A) M. Crozier
(B) Frank Gilbreth
(C) Reinhard Bendix
(D) M. L. Cooke

120. What was/were the perspective(s) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy ?
1. Economic perspective
2. Political perspective
3. Sociological perspective
4. Cultural perspective
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 4 only
(D) 3 only

Answers
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A)32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (A)72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C)
1. (C) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (B)
101. (C)102. (C)103. (C)104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (B)
111. (C)112. (D)113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (D)116. (C)117. (D)118. (B)119. (A) 120. (D)