IBPS BANK CLERK REASONING SOLVED PAPER 2016
1. If, in a certain code language, the word MONTY is written as YTNOM, then how will you write the word ANDROMEDA in that language?(A) ADEMORDNA (B) RDNAOADEM
(C) ADEMORDNA (D) ADEORMDNA
(E) None of these
2. Which one of the following has the same relationship as that of Elephant : Miniscule?
(A) Tiger : Ferocious
(B) Mouse : Gigantic
(C) Mouse : Tiny
(D) Zephyr : Mild
(E) Rainbow : Splendid
3. In a row, Ram is at the Pavillion End while Mili is at the River End. There are 4 persons between Ram and Shyam and 8 persons between Shayam and Mili. What is the rank of Shyam from the River End if Mili is allowed to leave the row?
(A) Tenth (B) Eighth
(C) Ninth (D) Eleventh
(E) None of these
4. Find the odd man out of the following.
(A) 303 (B) 606
(C) 21021 (D) 23023
(E) 2727
5. Which one of numbers in the answer choices given ahead will replace the question-mark in the series given below?
44, 59, 76, ?
(1) 90 (2) 95
(3) 105 (4) 99
(5) None of these
Directions: Q 6-8: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
Number : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Symbol : a b f q y d s r p
The following rules are to be observed:
(1) If any number begins with an odd number, then that odd number is represented by the symbol *.
(2) If any number ends with an even number, then that number is symbolised as #.
6. Which one of the following will be the symbol of 69835244?
(A) dryqb#a
(B) dyqbars
(C) drfybq#
(D) drfyaqy
(E) None of these
7. Which one of the following will be the symbol of 39658264?
(A) *dyrbd#
(B) *rsbdq#
(C) *rsbdfq#
(D) *rsdybd#
(E) None of these
8. Which number is respresented by the following set of symbols?
q d r y f
(A) 4 9 6 3 2 9 (B) 4 6 9 9 8 5
(C) 4 9 6 8 5 3 (D) 4 6 9 1 3 5
(E) None of these
Directions: Q 9-11: In each one of the questions given below, there are three Statements, followed by four Conclusions, which have been numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to assume the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Now, decide which of the given Conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
9. Statements
(a) Some dolls are belts.
(b) Some stools are chairs.
(c) All chairs are dolls.
Conclusions
I. All stools are dolls.
II. All chairs are belts.
III. Some chairs are stools.
IV. Some belts are stools.
(A) II and III (B) Only IV
(C) III and IV (D) I, II and III
(E) Only III
10. Statements
(a) Some screws are nuts.
(b) Some priests are nuns.
(c) No jar is a screw.
Conclusions
I. Some nuts are jars.
II. Some priests are jars.
III. All jars are screws.
IV. Some nuns are priests.
(A) I, II and III (B) II and III
(C) I, II and IV (D) I and IV
(E) II and IV
11. Statements
(a) No burger is a spoon.
(b) Some gizmos are spoons.
(c) All saucers are billets.
Conclusions
I. Some gizmos are not billets.
II. Some gizmos are not spoons.
III. All saucers are spoons.
IV. No billet is a spoon.
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) Only I and II
(D) III only
(E) IV only
Directions: Q 12-14: In the following questions, the symbols *, #, @, and • have the following meanings:
(A) J * K means J is not smaller than K.
(B) J # K means J is neither greater than nor smaller than K.
(C) J @ K means J is not greater than K.
(D) J K means J is neither smaller than nor equal to K.
(E) J • K means J is neither greater than nor equal to K.
Now, in each one of the following questions, assuming the given Statemetns to be true, find out which of the two Conclusions—I and II— given below them is/are definitely true. Give your answer as:
(A) If only Conclusion I is true.
(B) If only Conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or Conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.
(E) If both Concusion I and Conclusion II are true.
12. L B, B # Z, Z • D
I. Z • L II. B @ D
13. R • M, M • T, T * A
I. T # R II. M @ A
14. N # R, R A, A * Z
I. A • N II. R * Z
Directions: Q 15-17: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given follow.
When an input line of words is given to a word arrangement machine, it arranges them following a particular link for each step. An example demonstrates the operation of the machine.
Input : I must apologize for my old forgotten mistake
Step I : Mistake I must apologise for my old forgottten
Step II : forgotten mistake I must apologise for my old
Step III : forgotten mistake I must apologise for old my
Step IV : forgotten mistake I must apologise for old
Step V : mistake I must apologise for old
Step VI : mistake I must apologise
Note that all the previous steps must be followed to arrive at the output of a given step. The order of steps cannot be changed. It means that all the previous steps must be followed before arriving at a given step. Finally, Step-VI output is the last output.
15. The given input is:
Govinda has arranged a meeting with his boss.
What will be the Step-III output for this input?
(A) His Govinda boss has arranged a meeting
(B) Govinda has arranged a meeting with boss his
(C) His Govinda boss has arranged with a meeting
(D) His boss Govinda has arranged a with meeting
(E) His boss Govinda has arranged
16. What will be the Step-V output for this input?
Input: Cheese and butter can make some great recipes.
(A) Great recipes cheese and butter can some make
(B) Recipes cheese and butter can some
(C) Recipes cheese and butter can make some great
(D) Recipes cheese butter can make
(E) None of these
17. What is the last-step output of the following input?
Input: The President cannot apologise because he is stubborn.
(A) Cannot stubborn President the
(B) The President cannot stubborn
(C) Stubborn the President cannot
(D) The c annot apologise stubborn
(E) President cannot stubborn apologise
Directions: Q 18-20: In each one of the questions given below, there is a Statement, followed by two Assumptions—numbered I and II. An Assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the Statement and the Assumptions that follow it. Then, you have to decide which one of the Assumptions is implicit in the Statement or not. Give your answer as:
(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit.
(D) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.
(E) If both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.
18. Statement: The Tsunami tragedy has forced the government to consider installing a Tsunami warning system in the Indian Ocean.
Assumptions
I. The government has asked foreign geoligists to study the coastal regions of India and give suggestions and/or estimates about the installation of an early warning device.
II. The Tsunamis have struck many times in the Atlantic but there is already an active device in that ocean.
19. Statement: If the price of the stock of Reliance Industries Limited falls below Rs. 289 per share, sell, sell, sell.
Assumptions
I. The price of the stock of Reliance Industries Ltd. is likely to fall.
II. Reliance Industrices Limited is facing the problem of bifurcation of assets and this could affect its share values at the bourses.
20. Statement: Today, I had to buy onions at the rate of Rs. 25 per kilogram from the vegetable market.
Assumptions
I. Serious shortage in the supply of onions to all the markets of my city is a result of the strike of transporters.
II. If vegetables are not available elsewhere, they are still available in the vegetable market at very high prices.
Directions: Q 21-24: A passage has been given below. It is followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide about its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark your answer as:
(A) If the Inference is “definitely true” i.e., it probably follows from the statements or facts given.
(B) If the Inference is “probably true,” though not “definitely true,” in the light of the facts given.
(C) If the “data are inadequate,” i.e., from the facts given, you cannot say whether the Inference is likely to be true of false.
(D) If the Inference is “probably false,” though not “definitely false,” in the light of the facts given.
(E) If the Inference is “definitely false,” i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given, or it contradicts the given facts.
If the mob starts heading towards the walled area of the city, it may go berserk. This small incident can trigger a spate of violence in the entire city. That is why the police are arriving in the northern parts of the city. In all probability, they would try to stop the mob in the central part of the city. If this does not happen—and we know that it shall not, given that there are only twenty policeman on duty— the mob can engage itself in arson and looting. This situation warrants the interference of paramilitary forces. The Mayor knows that the nearest CRPF post is twenty kilometers due north-east. In order to inform them, some one would have to go through the central part of the city. That is a dangerous game, given that one cannot avoid the mob even as one tries to go towards the north-eastern part of the city.
21. The northern parts of the city are out of reach for the common man.
22. Forty policemen can control the mob with ease.
23. There are many routes, besides the one going through the central part of the city, for meeting or informing the CRPF personnel.
24. If the mob goes berserk, it may damage property and hart/kill people in the central part of the city.
Directions: Q 25-27: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Three cinema halls can run three shows each: 12– 3 pm, 3 – 6 pm and 6 – 9 pm. There are nine movies to be screened in these three cinema halls. The rules for screening the movies are as follows:
(1) Sapna cinema will screen movies M and C, from 3–6 pm and from 6 – 9 pm, respectively.
(2) Paras cinema will not screen movie R.
(3) Alankar cinema will screen movie X from 12 – 3 pm.
(4) Sapna cinema will not screen movies Z and N; nor will Paras cinema.
(5) Z and N can be screened at any time of the day.
(6) Y and D will be screened only from from 12 – 3 pm and from 6 – 9 pm, respectively.
(7) Sapna and Alankar cinemas will not screen Y and D.
(8) Movie B will be screened only in that cinema hall in which movie D will be screened.
(9) Alankar cinema will not screen movie R, which can be screened during any show schedule out of the given three schedules.
25. Which movie will be screened in Alankar cinema from 3 – 6 pm?
(A) Y (B) B
(C) M (D) Z
(E) D
26. Which one of the following will be screened in the last show of cinema that is supposed to show film Y in its first show?
(A) M (B) D
(C) B (D) R
(E) C
27. Which one of the following is a wrong combination?
(A) Sapna — M, R and C
(B) Paras — D, B and Y
(C) Alankar — Z, N and R
(D) Alankar — N, Z and X
(E) Both (2) and (4) are wrong
Directions: Q 28-30: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The following are the criteria for selecting the candidates for the purpose of granting them admission to the three-year professional training course in banking and finance. The successful candidates would eventually get a diploma certificate (after 3 years of training) from a government-recognised training centre located in Ulhasnagar, Maharashtra. This is a residential co-educational course. The candidate must:
(1) have obtained at least 55 per cent marks in his or her graduation course;
(2) have obtained at least 72.5 per cent in the entrance test, called Banking Aptitude Test (BAT);
(3) have scored at least 63 percent marks in English or in any science (medical or nonmedical) subject during the final year’s examination of his or her graduation course; and
(4) have his or her age in the range of 25 to 27 years as on July 9, 2011.
There are a few exceptions to the above mentioned rules. They are as follows:
(1) If the candidate has studied banking and finance during his graduate study period, he can be granted admission to the training programme even if he has scored less than 55 per cent marks in the graduation course.
(2) If the candidate has studied neither English nor any science subject, he can be granted provisional admission to the training course, provided he has scored 80 per cent or above in the BAT.
(3) In the case of SCs and STs, the term for age eligibility is relaxable by 3 years.
(4) If the candidate has some work experience in banking and finance, his case is to be referred to Dean (Admissions).
Based on the above mentioned criteria and information provided against each candidate, take a decision with respect to the cases given in the questions that follow. You are not required to assume anything extra. The following cases have been given to you on July 9, 2011.
Mark your answer as:
(A) If the candidate is to be admitted.
(B) If the candidate is to be admitted because he is a SC or ST.
(C) If the candidate’s case is to be referred to Dean (Admissions).
(D) If the candidate is to be granted provisional admission that would be confirmed later on.
(E) If the candidate is not to be admitted.
28. Dolma N. Chang has born on April 11, 1985. She has completed her B.A. course from the Banglore University with 59 per cent m,arks. She has scored 1578 marks out of 2160 marks in the BAT. In the English language subject in the final year, she had scored 69.7 per cent marks. Dolma belongs to a scheduled tribe of Kurseong, West Bengal.
29. Palwinder Singh Cheema was born on June 8, 1985 in Mansa (Punjab). He completed his B.Sc (non-medical) from the university campus of Punjab University, Chandigarh. He scored 72 per cent marks in the B.Sc. course. Palwinder is working as Assistant Project Officer (Scientific Group) in a company named XYR Techtronics Limited. His score in the BAT was 1550 marks out of 2160. His score in physics in the final semester examination was 68.9%.
30. N. Sasi was born on June 21, 1984 in Ooty, Tamil Nadu. He has obtained a degree in commerce from the University of Madras. He did not study English during the graduate study period. He has scored 1771 marks out of 2160 in the BAT. His graduation percentage was 63.3 per cent. Sasi does not belong to any SC or ST group notified by the Tamil Nadu government.
Directions: Q 31-35: Answer the following questions after referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below.
¯ D R M (6) (9) (21) L d q Y J f V (32)
31. If all the even numbers of this series are replaced by 2’s and all the odd numbers are replaced by 1’s, then what will be the sum of all the new numbers?
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 6
(E) 12
32. If we remove all the numbers from the series, then which element will be found at the sixth place from the right in the new series?
(A) q (B)
(C) (D) d
(E) J
33. Which one of the following is the right description of the tenth element from the left in the original series?
(A) A triangle
(B) An arrow in the upward direction
(C) The symbol ‘delta’
(D) The letter ‘L’
(E) The symbol ‘square’
34. Which one of the following is the next letter or number in the ascending order to the letter or number that is the eleventh element from the right of the original series?
(A) J (B) L
(C) M (D) K
(E) P
35. If all the numbers and symbols of this series are dropped, what will be the number of pairs of letters in which, the letters are placed in the next alphabet order (forward or reverse) without any gaps?
(A) Four (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E5) Cannot be determined
ANSWERS SHEET
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (E) 24. (D) 25. (D)
26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (E) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (B)
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