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Showing posts with label 2008 Solved Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label 2008 Solved Paper. Show all posts

Andhra Bank Probationary Officer's Exam.,2008 Solved Paper

Solved Paper
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008

(Held on 14-09-2008)

General Awareness

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M.S.Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans (E) Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans (D)

S.S.C. Section Officers (Audit) Exam Solved Paper

S.S.C. Section Officers (Audit) Exam

General Awareness

(Held on 6-1-2008)

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

57. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

68. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

71. The largest producer of world’s mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli’s theorem

94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

95. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

Answers with Explanations
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64.8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam., 2008 ( Public Administration )

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam., 2008

( Public Administration )

1. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD) ?
(A) Grid approach
(B) Survey feedback method
(C) Process consultation
(D) Peter principle

2. In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which variable is used along with the concern for people ?
(A) Concern for external environment
(B) Concern for flexibility
(C) Concern for production
(D) Concern for managing change

3. Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?
(A) Charismatic
(B) Exploitive-authoritative
(C) Consultative
(D) Participative-group

4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets—
1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.
2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.
3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

5. Who is/are the author(s) of the well-known book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intragroup conflicts in an organization ?
(A) A. F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(B) K. Smith and D. Berg
(C) S. Ghoshal
(D) C. K. Prahlad

6. John Woodward is known for her contribution in which area ?
(A) Task technology approach to organizational design
(B) Environmental approach to organizational design
(C) Communication systems in an organization
(D) Feedback control in an organization

7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?
(A) Technical education in India
(B) Public health in India
(C) Development of airports in India
(D) Development of ports in India

8. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?
(A) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner
(B) By the Supreme Court of India
(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed
(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

10. Which one among the following conducts the “Census of Central Government Employees” and publishes the Report thereof ?
(A) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India
(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India
(C) Planning Commission of India
(D) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?
(A) Gouldner
(B) Merton
(C) Barnard
(D) Simon

13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers—
(A) Are essentially lazy
(B) Are motivated only by more pay
(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under ‘situational design theory’ ?
(A) Behavioural approach
(B) Neo-classical, approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Bureaucratic model

15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?
(A) H. A. Simon
(B) J. D. Millet
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Chester I. Barnard

16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?
1. Coercive power
2. Technical power
3. Referent power
4. Police power
5. Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3 and 5

17. In ‘Management Grid Theory’ of Blake and Mouton when the ‘concern for people’ is the highest, what is the leadership pattern called ?
(A) ‘Impoverished’
(B) ‘People-centric’
(C) ‘Team Manager’
(D) ‘Country Club’

18. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?
1. Aggressiveness
2. Desire to attain fame
3. Independence
4. Social recognition

5. Self-confidence Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

19. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements—
Ethics Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U. S. Congress was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that—
1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.
2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.
3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.
4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) N. Umapathy
(B) Amilai Etzioni
(C) Deming
(D) Chris Argyris

22. Consider the following statements—
The essential difference between closed and open models of organization is differing perception about—
1. Human nature.
2. Organizational environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?
(A) Customer driven government
(B) Entrepreneurial government
(C) Rationality in decision making
(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 4 and 5

25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from ‘charisma’.
3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept)
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Constructive conflict
(c) Scalar principle
(d) Grapevine
List-II (Contributor)
1. L. Urwick
2. F. Taylor
3. E. Mayo
4. M. Weber
5. M. Follet
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 5
(B) 1 5 4 3
(C) 2 5 1 3
(D) 1 3 4 5

27. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Book)
(a) Human Organization
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization
(c) New Patterns of Management
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization
List-II (Author)
1. Rensis Likert
2. Elton Mayo
3. Henry Fayol
4. Max Weber
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

28. According to classical theorists, how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an administrative organization characterized ?
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Legitimacy of rule, according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?
1. Tradition
2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict
4. Professional competence
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. Which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of Post Modern Public Administration ?
(A) Critical Theory
(B) Neo Taylorism
(C) Rational Theory
(D) Public Choice Theory

31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science
(b) Development administration is goal and action oriented
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient
(d) Development is both process and purpose
List-II
1. Weidner
2. Hahn-Been Lee
3. R. Dahl
4. V. Ostrom
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid : Y. Dror would not so much flatten as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
2. A change in : Vilfredo Pareto economic organization that makes one or more members of society better off without making anyone worse off
3. Metapolicy Policy for : John Pfiffner policy making procedures
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves—
(A) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches
(B) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches
(C) Adoption of legal-formal institutional approaches
(D) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

35. Consider the following statements—
Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on—
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following statements—
According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements—
Public-private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to—
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements—
In the course of Waldo-Simon debate on the theme of ‘Science’ of administration, Waldo questioned Simon’s ‘facts-values’ division, as—
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements—
1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.
2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization—
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists.
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?
(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(B) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(C) The leadership styles of two managers
(D) Motivational needs of two employees

42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Salary —Motivator
(B) Status —Hygiene factor
(C) Growth —Motivator
(D) Security —Hygiene factor

43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Situational leadership theory—Hersey-Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements—
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust, with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?
1. Urban poverty alleviation.
2. Planning for economic and social development.
3. Regulation for tanneries.
4. Urban forestry.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Consider the following statements—
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral.
2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?
1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.
2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements—
1. The Constitution (Seventythird Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution (Seventyfourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements—
All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India.
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance. Which of the statements given above is correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None

50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill ?
1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Alteration of any tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?
(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State
(B) Legislature of the State
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) District Collector

52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to conditions of service of Members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Minister of Law
(D) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission

53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment
(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment
(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment
(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office / Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Cabinet Secretariat

55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?
(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions—(Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.
Reason (R) : The Second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) : It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.

59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.
Reason (R) : Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership style will be effective ?
(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands
(B) Leader-member relations
(C) Task structures
(D) Leader’s position power

62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?
1. Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. Communal violence.
3. An integrated domestic market.
4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
(A) A. M. Ahmadi
(B) A. S. Anand
(C) M. N. Venkatachalaiah
(D) J. S. Verma

64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.
2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.
3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?
(A) 11th Finance Commission
(B) 12th Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission

66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?
1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by funding from the University Grants Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?
(A) 1.4.2008
(B) 1.4.2009
(C) 1.4.2010
(D) 1.4.2011

68. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Commission/Post of the Union of India)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India
List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)
1. 148
2. 280
3. 315
4. 324
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?
(A) The Ministry of Agriculture
(B) The Ministry of Water Resources
(C) The Ministry of Rural Development
(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)—
1. The scheme is being implemented by the State Governments.
2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50 : 50 funds sharing basis.
3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements—
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Who among the following further developed the Politics-Administration dichotomy—a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?
(A) H. Fayol
(B) L. Gulick
(C) L. Urwick
(D) F. Goodrow

73. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Talcott Parsons
(b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) M. P. Follett
List-II
1. Creative Experience
2. Inside Bureaucracy
3. The Structure of Social Action
4. Work and the Nature of Man
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?
(A) Nomological deductivism
(B) Professionalisation of public administration
(C) Debureaucratisation of administration
(D) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’

75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. The Profession of Government—B. Chapman
2. Development Administration—La Palambora
3. Bureaucracy and Political Development—P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems, made possible by rising level of diffraction.
Who among the following gave the above definition ?
(A) Edward Weidner
(B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?
(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries
(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development
(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)—
1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.
2. Presently, only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

79. The ‘Line and Staff’ form of organization first originated in which one of the following ?
(A) Educational Administration
(B) Municipal Administration
(C) Military Administration
(D) Public Administration

80. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor
(b) Chester I. Barnard
(c) Chris Argyris and E. W. Bakke
(d) Kurt Lewin
List-II
1. Field Force Model
2. Fusion Process Theory
3. Zone of indifference
4. Pig iron experiment
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?
1. Differential piecework plan.
2. Separation of planning and execution.
3. Time study.
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3 only

82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?
(A) Relating to production and adaptation
(B) Relating to buying and selling
(C) Relating to liaison with the governments
(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?
(A) Effective use of specialized facilities
(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(D) Effective top-management control

85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?
1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.
2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority.
3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.
4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 4, 2 and 1

86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Subject)
(a) Nonprogrammed decisions
(b) Programmed decisions
(c) Emphasis on data storage
(d) Emphasis on data manipulation
List-II (Related to)
1. Lower-level managers
2. Upper-level managers
3. Decision support system
4. Management Information System
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?
(A) Job design
(B) Work measurement
(C) Decision under uncertainty
(D) Training program for new recruits

88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U. K.—
The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for—
1. A complete overhaul of administrative training.
2. More professionalism.
3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper : Incremental budget
incentive for managers to
develop innovative ideas

2. Increases staff motivation : Zero-based budget

3. The R & D department : Zero-based budget
is threatened whereas
production department
benefits

4. The impact of change : Incremental budget
can be seen quickly

Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?
(A) French Revolution of 1789
(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847
(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946
(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) L. Urwick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Frank Goodnow

92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?
(A) Systems theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Human Relations theory
(D) Scientific Management theory

94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?
(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(B) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

95. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour : A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(B) H. A. Simon and Chester I. Barnard
(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow
(D) A. Maslow and Chester I.Barnard

96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?
(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Environment and Forests

97. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?
1. Cultural
2. Perceptual
3. Ideological
4. Technological
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition ?
1. The idea goes against the open model.
2. It is against the closed model.
3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

99. In the U. K. the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?
(A) Whyatt Report
(B) Atkinson Report
(C) William Report
(D) Northcote-Trevelyan Report

100. Effective public participation in development projects majorly needs which of the following ?
1. Occasional consultation
2. Active association with the whole project cycle
3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative
4. Gender sensitivity
5. Poverty sensitivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 4 and 5

101. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Zone of acceptance
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Mixed scanning
List-II
1. H. Simon
2. Etzioni
3. Chester Barnard
4. A. Maslow
5. F. Herzberg
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 4 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 5
(C) 5 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 5

102. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘state mystifying’ institution ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse-Tung
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. I. Lenin

103. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”.
This statement is credited to whom among the following ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) F. A. Nigro
(C) O. Tead
(D) C. Merriam

104. Consider the following statements about budget—
1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.
2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration.
3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.
4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

105. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following ?
1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.
2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.
3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compromise.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Davis Committee
(b) Masterman Committee
(c) Second Hoover Committee
(d) Franks Committee
List-II
1. Political activities of Civil Servants
2. Senior Executive Service
3. Official Secrets Act
4. Method-II
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

107. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by—
(A) The Government of India only
(B) The Government of India
and the Reserve Bank of India
(C) The Reserve Bank of India only
(D) The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India

108. The Code of Ethics for public services developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following ?
1. Respect for public interest, Constitution and laws.
2. Personal integrity, professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations.
3. High salaries, quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

109. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A. ?
(A) F. Roosevelt
(B) A. Jackson
(C) T. Jefferson
(D) G. Washington

110. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List I (Body/Feature)
(a) National Personnel Authority
(b) Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’
(c) Doctrine of Rule of Law
(d) Commune—A unit of local self-government
List II (Country)
1. United States of America
2. France
3. U. K.
4. Japan
Codes :
(a) '(b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

111. Consider the following statements—
Informal organizations/groups within formal ones come into being because—
1. They are created by the top management in an organization.
2. They facilitate communication within different units/levels of an organization.
3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

112. Consider the following statements—
In the ambiguous and uncertainty- ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense-making perspective under which—
1. Preferences may be easy to identify.
2. Choices may be contradictory and unclear.
3. Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

113. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations ?
(A) Philip Selznick
(B) H. A. Simon
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Peter Drucker

114. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(A) Rewards and sanctions
(B) Social disapproval
(C) Legitimacy
(D) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability

115. In explaining administrative decision-making, Simon’s decision- theory focussed on which one of the following ?
(A) The single best choice made by the decision-maker
(B) The limits of information availability in the organization
(C) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator
(D) Bounded rationality and satisficing

116. While dealing with superiorsubordinate communication, the theory of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following ?
(A) Emphasis on task directives
(B) Communication on organizational policy and procedures
(C) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates
(D) Superior’s managerial capacity

117. The behavioural approach led to administrative research on which of the following ?
1. Motivation studies.
2. Decision making studies.
3. Organizational structures.
4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

118. Consider the following statements—
According to Barnard, authority is accepted in an organization only when—
1. The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.
2. The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

119. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors” ?
(A) M. Crozier
(B) Frank Gilbreth
(C) Reinhard Bendix
(D) M. L. Cooke

120. What was/were the perspective(s) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy ?
1. Economic perspective
2. Political perspective
3. Sociological perspective
4. Cultural perspective
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 4 only
(D) 3 only

Answers
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A)32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (A)72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C)
1. (C) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (B)
101. (C)102. (C)103. (C)104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (B)
111. (C)112. (D)113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (D)116. (C)117. (D)118. (B)119. (A) 120. (D)