Andhra Bank Probationary Officer's Exam.,2008 Solved Paper

Solved Paper
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008

(Held on 14-09-2008)

General Awareness

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M.S.Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans (E) Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans (D)

Objective General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

Objective General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act (D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above
4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

89. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above


Answers :

1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A)
6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D)
16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C)
26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D)
36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B)
46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C)
56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B)
66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B)
76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C)
86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A)
96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)